When Jesus was conversing with the woman at the well and He told her she had had FIVE HUSBANDS and the man she had then was not her husband, why did He continue to talk to her since she had committed the “unpardonable sin” of being in multiple marriages? Why didn’t He tell her she was hopelessly and eternally lost because of all this marrying and divorcing? This is an example of the proverbial loaded question, because (1) it portrays an uncharitable, sarcastic bias and (2) it proposes a preposterous straw man dialog to promote a counter answer about the topic of marriage, divorce and remarriage. Hence, the paragraph above is not as much of a “question” as it is an “affirmation” of a doctrinal position. Yet, we will not presume that the one posing the question possesses this attitude, for these words may be merely the grammar of another repeated. In any case, the “question” or “affirmation” needs to be addressed from a biblical perspective. Generally, Bible students refer to blasphemy against the Holy Spirit as the so-called unpardonable sin (Matthew 12:31-32). However, the reason that blasphemy against the Holy Spirit or “a sin unto death” (1 John 5:16 KJV) is unpardonable is because the sinner refuses to repent. In both testaments, God has been willing to forgive sins for which sinners will repent; consider these biblical citations. “Let the wicked forsake his way, And the unrighteous man his thoughts; Let him return to the Lord, And He will have mercy on him; And to our God, For He will abundantly …

When Jesus said whoever looks at a woman to lust for her has already committed adultery with her in his heart, what is the difference between that and the literal act? The verses under consideration are these. “You have heard that it was said to those of old, ‘You shall not commit adultery.’  But I say to you that whoever looks at a woman to lust for her has already committed adultery with her in his heart” (Matthew 5:27-28 NKJV). There are no more frequently asked questions than about “Marriage, Divorce and Remarriage,” and the Gospel Gazette Online “Archive” reflects that with numerous articles addressing this topic. A comprehensive article concerning “Matthew 5:28” by this author appears at the following URL. https://www.gospelgazette.com/gazette/2004/mar/page18.htm Other noteworthy articles on “Marriage, Divorce & Remarriage” from the Gospel Gazette Online “Archive” include these two. https://www.gospelgazette.com/gazette/2004/apr/page2.htm https://www.gospelgazette.com/gazette/2004/sep/page2.htm This articles provides additional insight and observations regarding “Matthew 5:28,” and it specifically addresses the specific question submitted above. The subject matter of Jesus’ statement in Matthew 5:28 is “impure desire” (Clarke). “Jesus locates adultery in the eye and heart before the outward act” (Robertson’s). “Adultery begins within one’s heart (looking lustfully) and follows in the act. The lustful desire, in the heart, as wrong as the act, indicates that one is not rightly related to God” (Bible Knowledge). Sexual impurity begins in the desires of the heart. Again, Jesus is not saying that lustful desires are identical to lustful deeds, and therefore a person might just as well go ahead and commit …

What is the teaching of Deuteronomy 24:1-4; Jeremiah 3:1; Hosea 11 and Ezekiel 23? Note the parallel teachings recorded in Deuteronomy and Jeremiah. “When a man takes a wife and marries her, and it happens that she finds no favor in his eyes because he has found some uncleanness in her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce, puts it in her hand, and sends her out of his house, when she has departed from his house, and goes and becomes another man’s wife, if the latter husband detests her and writes her a certificate of divorce, puts it in her hand, and sends her out of his house, or if the latter husband dies who took her as his wife, then her former husband who divorced her must not take her back to be his wife after she has been defiled; for that is an abomination before the Lord, and you shall not bring sin on the land which the Lord  your God is giving you as an inheritance” (Deuteronomy 24:1-4 NKJV) “They say, ‘If a man divorces his wife, And she goes from him And becomes another man’s, May he return to her again?’ Would not that land be greatly polluted? But you have played the harlot with many lovers; Yet return to Me,” says the Lord (Jeremiah 3:1 NKJV). Old Testament instruction found in Deuteronomy 24:1-4 and Jeremiah 3:1 prohibited Israelites from marrying a second time to a spouse after which he had divorced her she …

In Ezekiel 44:22 priests were told not to take as a wife a widow or a divorced woman. What’s the teaching or the example in this passage? Was this command just to the priests? Could other men marry widows and divorced women? Why were divorced women put in the same context with the widows? The cited passage reads, “They shall not take as wife a widow or a divorced woman, but take virgins of the descendants of the house of Israel, or widows of priests” (Ezekiel 44:22 NKJV). This is similar to divine regulation of Jewish priests (Leviticus 21:7) and high priests (Leviticus 21:13-14) found near the inception of the Jewish priesthood. Additional requirements imposed by God on the Jewish priests promoted a higher level of purity and holiness to distinguish them from the rest of the people. This higher standard also included regulation whom the priests could marry, which differed somewhat from divine regulation respecting non-priests. Both divorced women and widows (except for “widows of priests”) did not meet the model of innocence or ceremonial purity that God desired to impress on the Jews respecting the distinction of holiness between the priests and the rest of the people. The widows of priests would have previously met the stipulation of innocence from their virginity until they had wed their priestly husbands. There is no direct example in this Old Testament instruction applicable today under Christianity. However indirectly in principle, one could note especially for special servants of God today (e.g., …

When John the Baptist told Herod that it was not lawful for him to have his brother Philip’s wife, were they living together or was Herodias divorced from Philip? If she was divorced why did John still refer to her as Philip’s wife? The Jewish historian Josephus, who was nearly contemporary with John the Baptist and Herodias, and other reference works state that Herod and Herodias were married. Herodias divorced her husband Herod Philip, and Herod Antipas divorced his wife so that Herodias and Antipas could marry. Mankind is obligated to abide by the law of God. God is not obligated to abide by man’s law. Despite mankind then or now calling “marriage” what God in the Bible calls “adultery,” such does not convert adultery into valid marriage. John the Baptist, representing God’s perspective, accused Herod Antipas and Herodias of adultery in spite of the recognition of their “marriage” by the law of the land as legal. Frankly, it is no different today. “For Herod had laid hold of John and bound him, and put him in prison for the sake of Herodias, his brother Philip’s wife. Because John had said to him, ‘It is not lawful for you to have her’” (Matthew 14:3-4 NKJV). The point is that mankind said the marriage of Herod Antipas and Herodias was “lawful,” but God through John the Baptist said their marriage was “not lawful.”

…If they have to go back and “make that right” where does he stop “making past sins” right? … All this man-made legislating for God has ruined hundreds of lives… Why is this dogma being taught when it is not a teaching that promotes the simplicity that is in Christ? The message sounds like the blood of Christ can and does cover any and all sin, but divorced unbelievers need not apply! Believers in a second or subsequent marriage must divorce their present mate, go back and find their first mate, remarry them and THEN their salvation is once again assured – if this is not done, then hell will be their home. Their other option is to dissolve the present marriage since it was never recognized by God in the first place and live celibate for the rest of their lives. Where in the Bible is all this found? The quoted paragraph above is more nearly a rant than is it a question, but we will assume that the questioner desires an honest reply from God’s Word. Doubtless many members of the church have similar misgivings about what the New Testament teaches concerning marriage, divorce and remarriage – and I am persuaded that many of them feed off of each other, sharing the same words, phrases and complaints. There is always a contest trying to fit God’s instructions into a world gone haywire away from biblical truth. Unfortunately, far too much of the carnal world has crept into the Lord’s church …

If previous marriages doom you to hell then why doesn’t obesity? Folks are added to the church overweight, they remain in the church overweight, and they die in the church overweight. Are these folks on their way to hell for lack of self-control just like the one who can’t and won’t be forgiven for a previous marriage? What’s the difference between marital repentance and repentance of a lack of self-control? With all due kindness, nevertheless, this is a prejudicial series of questions melded together into a larger question with a decidedly stacked deck in defense of unscriptural marriage practices. We will, though, address the “question,” piece by piece, under the assumption that someone desires an honest, biblical answer. First, the word “obesity” means, “a condition characterized by excessive bodily fat,” and the word “overweight” means, “1 : weight over and above what is required or allowed. 2 : excessive or burdensome weight” (Merriam Webster’s). Therefore, “obesity” and “overweight” are subjective terms relative to conflicting standards touted by uninspired men, rather than being biblical words tied to specific biblical instruction. Even definitions in the medical community for obesity and being overweight have changed from time to time and continue to change from time to time. Granted, some people may fit the questioner’s profile above and be unquestionably unhealthy. Yet, it is an overgeneralization that all fat or heavy people, by someone’s subjective standard, are sinners condemned to hell. For one thing, there may be a number of genetic, medical or environmental reasons that even an obese person may …

The “issue” about which a questioner bemoans that “there is no consensus” is marriage, divorce and remarriage. The problem with this way of thinking is that no doctrine of God is up for vote! Irrespective of whether mankind can muster a consensus of approval respecting any doctrine of God, divinely given, inspired truth is absolute and unchangeable. New Testament truth was decided upon and delivered to mankind nearly 2,000 years before any contemporary person was born. The decisions regarding biblical doctrine were made before any of us made our respective debut on planet earth, and God asked none of us for our opinions. Neither has Almighty God crowned any living person with the authority to countermand biblical Truth. Jesus Christ had and has “all authority… in heaven and on earth” (Matthew 28:18 NKJV), and He has not surrendered any of it to mere mortals – and certainly not to anyone living today. New Testament teaching in a nutshell regarding marriage, divorce and remarriage is contained in primarily two passages – Matthew 19:9 and 1 Corinthians 7:10-11. Jesus Christ Himself uttered what we find in the first of those two references. The apostle Paul attributed what he penned in the latter citation to Jesus Christ as well. Jesus Christ alone is responsible for the teaching about marriage, divorce and remarriage that is applicable in the Christian Age, and it matters not all whether members of the church can come to a consensus among themselves about what to believe and practice.

What about the believer who has married an unbeliever KNOWING this was against what the Bible teaches and they continue to stay married? How does the believer repent of that unequal yoke? Does he divorce the unbeliever even though he has no “scriptural” grounds to do so, since sexual infidelity is the only exception in the marriage relationship? There is an apparent misunderstanding of Scripture indicated in the question above regarding what it means to be unequally yoked. Do not be unequally yoked together with unbelievers. For what fellowship has righteousness with lawlessness? And what communion has light with darkness? And what accord has Christ with Belial? Or what part has a believer with an unbeliever? And what agreement has the temple of God with idols? For you are the temple of the living God. As God has said: I will dwell in them And walk among them. I will be their God, And they shall be My people. Therefore Come out from among them And be separate, says the Lord. Do not touch what is unclean, And I will receive you. I will be a Father to you, And you shall be My sons and daughters, Says the Lord  Almighty. (2 Corinthians 6:14-18 NKJV) First, do you see how many times in the quotation from 2 Corinthians 6:14-18 that references to marriage occur? None! Yet, many people, including the questioner above, apparently only see in that context a reference to marriage between an unbeliever and a Christian. Someone must …

What are the considerations to consider in the choice and selection of a life-partner for marriage? How does one go about finding a godly mate in the Lord in today’s perverse and crooked world? What place should religious convictions and denominational affiliations have in the selection of mate for marriage for life? Are there Bible guidelines on marriage and family life matters like contraception, family planning, child spacing, parenting teenagers and adoption in case of infertility? The questioner is to be commended for inquiring thoughtfully about important matters concerning a future marriage. Few decisions in life are more important than choosing a spouse. That choice affects not only earthly happiness but may affect favorably or unfavorably the eternal destiny of both spouses and any children born into the family. Therefore, one ought to choose a mate who will help him or her get to heaven. One must look carefully and patiently “in today’s perverse and crooked world” before selecting a mate. In the process, one must not compromise Christian convictions, which are based upon the Word of God (and for people living today, particularly the New Testament). Morally good persons, who may esteem the Bible highly, may be found in denominations, but it is important to genuinely convert such a candidate for marriage before deciding on such a one for a lifelong marriage partner. Otherwise, there will be not only conflict in the home, but there will be diverse directions pursued in rearing children, Christian living and worship. While one …

A brother has been divorced and remarried 10 years ago. Does the reason for his divorce effect whether he is allowed to preach and participate with his new wife at the Lord’s Supper? Are there any restrictions on his ministry? The sole permission in the New Testament for divorce and remarriage is Matthew 19:9, where our Lord taught that only for the reason of adultery may the innocent party divorce and remarry. Jesus clearly stated that every other divorce and remarriage is adultery, irrespective of whether the law of the land sanctions such a marriage. If a man’s divorce and remarriage are scriptural, there is no biblical reason for prohibiting him from serving in any capacity for which he may be qualified in the Lord’s church, including preaching. However, as it is with elders, in order to serve effectively, a man must be held in esteem by fellow Christians and to some extent by community members (1 Timothy 3:7). Congregations choose for themselves their own preachers who instruct them in God’s Word, and they have the discretion, as long as biblical doctrine is not violated, to decide who will serve in that capacity.

Is unscriptural divorce and remarriage adultery if there is no sexual intercourse? Instead of divorcing again and living apart, this couple decides not to have any physical contact that involves intercourse. Thank you. The lone reason provided in the New Testament for divorce and remarriage was provided by Jesus Christ Himself. “And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery” (Matthew 19:9 NKJV). The singular instruction for spouses who have divorced for any other reason is provided by the apostle Paul, who affirms that He is conveying what Jesus Christ taught. “Now to the married I command, yet not I but the Lord: A wife is not to depart from her husband. But even if she does depart, let her remain unmarried or be reconciled to her husband. And a husband is not to divorce his wife” (1 Corinthians 7:10-11). What the questioner asks essentially is whether persons divorced for a reason other than adultery and who contract a civilly approved marriage that God does not recognize as a valid marriage may pretend to be married in the eyes of God. Put that way, it appears to me to be an iffy scenario at best. The clearer and certain course of action would be not to pretend to be married. That does not diminish moral responsibility for any children already brought into this world through such a union, and it would not …

A questioner asks, “Why is Tamar’s name included in the genealogy of Matthew?” (Matthew 1:3). That’s an easy question to answer. She was among the ancestors of our Lord. However, it was more common to include male ancestors rather than the female ancestors, though some other notable female ancestors also appear in the family tree (e.g., Rahab, Ruth and a reference to Bathsheba, Matthew 1:5-6). The Gospel Advocate Commentary for the Gospel According to Matthew supposes that Tamar was included due to the unorthodox way in which she was the mother of one of Judah’s sons in Christ’s lineage; the same could be said of Bathsheba. Rahab and Ruth, both Gentiles, represent along with Jewish ancestry the sum of all human races in the lineage of our Savior. The tainted characters of Tamar, Rahab and Bathsheba along with the Gentile background of Ruth in the family tree of Christ did not detract from the effectiveness of His redemptive mission. Rather, Jesus Christ came to save all mankind, though unfortunately most of the world’s population has not responded to God’s free gift of His Son.

Someone inquires, “What is the importance of the Old Testament.” Truly, where should I begin? As the Bible opens with the Book of Genesis, one learns about the creation of the universe and everything in it, with a special notice of the origin of the human race. The very first verse of the Bible introduces God as the source of everything except Himself. From the Old Testament we learn about the existence of divine law and the consequences of disobeying it. We have in the Old Testament the history of the human race for about the first 4,000 years. The blood-red strand woven throughout the Old Testament and in to the New Testament pertains to the blood-sacrifice of the second person of the Godhead for the redemption of sinful mortals. Particularly in the Old Testament one finds hundreds of prophecies concerning that Redeemer – better known to us as Jesus Christ; all of those prophecies were fulfilled in the first century, and we can read about their fulfillment in Jesus Christ upon the pages of the New Testament. The Old Testament details a preparatory time during two divinely-given law systems (i.e., Patriarchy and Judaism, Galatians 3:23-25; Ephesians 3:3-4). Finally, at just the right time in God’s master plan for redeeming mankind, God sent Jesus Christ into the world (Galatians 4:4-5). We would understand little to none of all the preparing of mankind God did throughout the ages or that our Lord was the precise fulfillment of all those Old Testament …

Someone asks, “How Many Israelites Crossed the Red Sea?” Scripture adequately stipulates the number of able-bodied men who crossed the Red Sea, beginning with Exodus 12:37, which reads, “Then the children of Israel journeyed from Rameses to Succoth, about six hundred thousand men on foot, besides children” (NKJV; cf. Numbers 11:21). A more precise number of men able to go forth as warriors can be discerned from a census that occurred just over a year following the crossing of the Red Sea. “… for everyone included in the numbering from twenty years old and above, for six hundred and three thousand, five hundred and fifty men” (Exodus 38:26). Not counted in that number were children, wives, the tribe of Levi and the old or infirm. So all who were numbered of the children of Israel, by their fathers’ houses, from twenty years old and above, all who were able to go to war in Israel — all who were numbered were six hundred and three thousand five hundred and fifty. But the Levites were not numbered among them by their fathers’ tribe; for the Lord had spoken to Moses, saying: “Only the tribe of Levi you shall not number, nor take a census of them among the children of Israel.” (Numbers 1:45-49) Therefore, the actual number of people crossing the Red Sea in the Exodus from Egypt was several times larger than the round figure of 600,000 by the time women, children, the old, the infirm and the Levites are …

Someone inquires, “Where does the Bible tell about Paul persecuting the church?” The inspired historian Luke recorded the persecution by Paul (then known by his Jewish name “Saul”) of the early church (Acts 8:1ff). Immediately preceding Paul’s (Saul’s) conversion, Jesus Christ asked Paul (Saul) why he was persecuting Him (Acts 9:4-5; 22:7-8; 26:14-15); the latter two citations in the previous sentence were related by the apostle Paul about his encounter with our Lord on the road to Damascus before his conversion. The apostle Paul clearly acknowledged that he had persecuted the church in his speech and writings recorded in Acts 26:11, 1 Corinthians 15:9, Galatians 1:13 and 1 Timothy 1:13.

Someone asks, “What is considered an eldership?” This word is a noun and represents a plurality of “elders,” also a noun. The words “elders” and “eldership” refer to the same thing. The New Testament also refers to “elders” (plural) (Acts 11:30; 14:23; 20:7; James 5:14, etc.) rather than to an “elder” (singular) when referring to church leaders appointed according to biblical qualifications in 1 Timothy 3:1-7 and Titus 1:5-9. No single “elder” constitutes an “eldership” or can biblically or scripturally direct a congregation.

Why in churches of Christ [do] we pray one person [at a time] and the rest will be in silence? Some cry when praying but this rarely happen in the churches of Christ? Then last the issue of speaking [is] in tongues after [one has] been filled with Holy Spirit, [I] have not yet encountered it. The churches of Christ try to be identical to the church that Jesus established (Matthew 16:18) and about which one can read in the New Testament. The noticeable differences between that church then and now pertain to the differences relative to the contrasts between the first century and the 21st century. Those dissimilarities include modern conveniences (e.g., electricity, air conditioning, modes of travel, church owned property, public address systems, audio-visual media, clothing styles, etc.) and the cessation of Bible miracles around the close of the first century and the beginning of the second century (1 Corinthians 13:8-12) when the New Testament epistles had been completed. First, one male member (1 Corinthians 14:34) prays aloud for the congregation at a time because this procedure is part of the orderliness (1 Corinthians 14:33, 40) in a congregational assembly commanded by the inspired apostle Paul. “Let two or three prophets speak, and let the others judge. But if anything is revealed to another who sits by, let the first keep silent. For you can all prophesy one by one, that all may learn and all may be encouraged. And the spirits of the prophets are subject to …

I have a question regarding the work of elders. Can one large work be under shared oversight of multiple elderships? For example, a school of preaching (which I am currently enrolled) has several campuses located at different congregations. Each campus is independent and is under the oversight of that particular host congregation’s elders. However, even though each campus is ran independently, they all fall under the same name banner. The campuses share curriculum, name, and template, but make their own decisions in regards to the use of each. I have spoke with the director about this and he gave me an answer. However, the answer is what actually lead to particulars of this this question. This also has nothing to do with any other motives except ensuring that I am involved in a scriptural situation. I very much want to continue my work with the school, but in good conscience. Thanks for your time, and as always I appreciate you and the sound balance of Gospel Gazette Online. We applaud the attitude of desiring to do what is correct spiritually and to maintain a good conscience. Romans 14 and verse 23 in particular require Christians to not violate their consciences. Essentially, even if a Christian believes something is wrong when it is perfectly alright, but does it anyway, violating his conscience, he sins. It is sinful to violate one’s conscience even if the activity itself is not actually sinful. In the first century, this especially applied to eating food that …