The “Us” of Acts 11:15

Hello, I have read your book “The Spirit Summarized,” and I have enjoyed reading it. I have learned much. I am currently in a serious study over “Acts” and currently I am in chapter 10. I have profited from chapter 6 of your book and I have a couple of questions for you. 1. In Acts 11:15 it says, “And as I began to speak, the Holy Spirit fell on them, as on us at the beginning.” Who is the “us” in this verse? 2. A couple of versus later the text reads, “For as much then as God gave them the like gift as he did unto us.” Once again, who is the “us” in this verse? Please elaborate on these questions. In Him, Michael Robinson Pronouns refer to nouns and the correct correlation between nouns and their pronouns must be made in order for language to be properly understood. This is as true in the Bible as in everyday speech or in the newspaper. That is all it will take to satisfactorily address the question of to whom the “us” in Acts 11:15 and 17 refers. Acts 11 is a reiteration of the events that transpired in Acts 10 respecting the conversion of Cornelius and those who were with him. Without duplicating the entire Bible text relative to this incident in these two chapters and without giving a full narration of the events that are chronicled in these two chapters, nevertheless, references must be made to verses in …

Are Mormons Christians?

With respect: I agree entirely that the New Testament apostolic faith plus the guidelines of the early centuries of the Christian Church should define our faith, but I find it confusing that the Mormons should be included in any list of Christians, because they have clearly gone way off the mark with the Book of Mormon and Mormon doctrine which contradict the Scriptures… I wonder why you mention the LDS alongside true historical churches. Would it not be better to keep denominations togerther, but steer clear of sectarian groups? Many thanks for the contact – I await your reflections! Tony Somervell, Paraguayan Anglican Church First, “the New Testament apostolic faith” about which anyone can read in the Bible constitutes authority in religion (Jude 3; 2 Timothy 3:16-17). However, it is not the case that “the guidelines of the early centuries of the Christian Church should define our faith.” Jesus claimed all authority for himself (Matthew 28:18, ASV). He delegated authority to his apostles (Matthew 16:16-19; 18:18). The Holy Spirit in the first century inspired additional men to write New Testament books (e.g., John Mark, Luke, James, Jude). No changes were permitted to the Gospel already delivered in the first century (Galatians 1:6-9; Revelation 22:18-19). Second, it is almost laughable for members of any denomination to cite another contemporary religious group as “way off the mark” when all the denominations are either a remake of the apostate Catholic Church or equally distant in organization, doctrine and worship from the church anyone can read …

Female Song Leader

Bro. Rushmore, Again I come to you for some sound Biblical knowledge. Would it be sinful for Christians to sing religious songs being lead by a female Baptist song leader? In Him, Rayford Henderson, Jr. First, being a female song leader or any other kind of female leader in a religious assembly composed of men and women is biblically impermissible, that is, sinful. Respecting the different roles God gave to men and women in religion and in the home, women are forbidden by Scripture from addressing a religious assembly. “Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law” (1 Corinthians 14:34). Women are forbidden in religion from taking an authoritative position over men. “But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence” (1 Timothy 2:12). Therefore, it is equally inappropriate or sinful for anyone (and especially Christians) to implicitly approve by his or her participation what God disapproves. The two following passages illustrate the principle that approving of what God disapproves causes the approving one to be likewise guilty of sin. “Who knowing the judgment of God, that they which commit such things are worthy of death, not only do the same, but have pleasure in them that do them” (Romans 1:32). “Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth …

The Churches of Christ Disaster Relief Fund

Dear Brother Rushmore, Recently in the area I live we were hit hard by some severe storms. Many lost their homes and sadly some lost their lives. In the aftermath an organization called “The Churches of Christ Disaster Relief Fund” came in and left truck loads of food for victims of the storm to be dispersed by local congregations. I had never heard of this organization before but as I understand, it is not under the over sight of any eldership and has a board of directors. The workers are volunteers and they will not release goods to a community unless it is done through the local church. They also receive funds as I understand from buisnesses and other sources outside of the church. My question is this, I know this is a good work but is this a case of the organization doing benevolent work for the church and is this something congregations should be involved in? I would appreciate you comments, I know some see no problem with it and others are very opposed, I just want to do what is right! In Christ, Roy Williams First, most people outside the churches of Christ and many members of the churches of Christ would wonder why this is a question of concern at all. Anyone not aware of the need for divine authority in religion or whose concept of authority in religion dethrones God and imagines that mankind, through humanly established churches, is his own religious authority, will not understand apprehension …

Face Like a Flint

What does it mean when you say “set your face like flint?” Thanks, Pat Moran The phrase to which reference is made above pertains to part of a Messianic prophecy. “For the Lord GOD will help me; therefore shall I not be confounded: therefore have I set my face like a flint, and I know that I shall not be ashamed” (Isaiah 50:7). That Isaiah 50:7 is part of a Messianic prophecy is evident from verse 6: “I gave my back to the smiters, and my cheeks to them that plucked off the hair: I hid not my face from shame and spitting.” Compare Matthew 26:67; 27:26. The following observation from the commentator, Albert Barnes, explains the different uses of this phrase as well as what it means in the context of Isaiah 50. To harden the face, the brow, the forehead, might be used either in a bad or a good sense-in the former as denoting shamelessness or haughtiness (see the note at Isa 48:4); in the latter denoting courage, firmness, resolution. It is used in this sense here; and it means that the Messiah would be firm and resolute amidst all the contempt and scorn which he would meet, and would not shrink from any kind or degree of suffering which should be necessary to accomplish the great work in which he was engaged. (Barnes’ Notes, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1997 by Biblesoft)

James, the Brother of the Lord

I came upon your website as I surfed the internet for reliable information on the subject item [James, brother of the Lord]. I wanted to compare the truth, which you have so accurately articulated, with the current archeological discovery. What do you think about the discovery? In the meanwhile be encouraged to use the internet to proclaim the Gospel of Christ. May the Lord bless this work abundantly. ~ Lawrence Wells Archaeological discoveries frequently substantiate or otherwise reflect entries in biblical history. Biblical archaeology has become one of the chief external evidences to the veracity of the Bible. Not long ago (1990), the ossuary or bone box of Caiaphas was discovered. It is ironic that the earthly remains of the high priest who condemned our Lord to death have been found, but Jesus Christ resurrected from the grave and ascended to heaven. Christians are confident respecting this cardinal principle underlying Christianity. Besides, the first century enemies of Jesus Christ would have produced his dead body if they could have to stop Christianity. Admittedly, there are plenty of discoveries that are either fraudulent or inconclusive respecting their relationship to biblical characters or circumstances. However, there are numerous finds that complement and confirm the biblical record. The recent announcement of the discovery of an ossuary that may belong to the fleshly half-brother of Jesus peaks one’s interest. Such a find causes one to ponder whether it is a hoax, a reference to another with the same name or the actual bone box of our …

Genesis 6:1-6

I have been studying the book of Genesis and I was wondering about Genesis 6:1-6. I read somewhere that the “sons of God” were to be interpreted as being angels. I remembered that in Luke 3:38, Adam was also referred to as a “son of God”, so I am questioning the angel interpretation. What do you think? ~ Christy Shomber The King James Version of the Bible, and other translations that faithfully represent the original language, use the phrases “sons of God” and “daughters of men” in the opening verses of Genesis 6. “1 And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them, 2 That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose. 3 And the LORD said, My spirit shall not always strive with man, for that he also is flesh: yet his days shall be an hundred and twenty years. 4 There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown. 5 And GOD saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every imagination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually. 6 And it repented the LORD that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved …

New Earth

Where is the future Kingdom of God in the new earth in the article intitled: “The Simplicity of the Gospel of Jesus?” Presumably, the reference above is meant to put forth a belief in a future habitation of God’s people on earth instead of or in addition to an eternal habitation in heaven. With so little information contained in the quotation above, it is difficult to ascertain with any degree of certainty precisely what the querist had in mind. Further, I am guessing that the questioner reflected on verse 13 of the following biblical passage. “But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up. Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of persons ought ye to be in all holy conversation and godliness, Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat? Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness” (2 Peter 3:10-13). The supposition that the righteous in the future will inhabit a made-over earth as opposed to heaven is an error owing to a miscomprehension of the difference between literal and figurative language. The passage above employs both literal …

Should the Gospel Records be Part of the New Testament?

Dear Brother Rushmore, A few years ago a man, during a Bible class, mentioned that the four books of the gospels should not be included in the New Testament because they were only written to the Jews concerning matters of the law of Moses. This was the first time I had ever heard such an idea. I heard the same statement made just today from someone from a different congregation in another part of the country. Are you familiar with this “idea” and how would you answer someone who holds this point of view? Your sister in Christ, Teresa Rachels Usually, there is an underlying reason why one imagines that the Gospel records do not belong in the New Testament canon. It has nothing to do with the proper placement of the Gospel records in either the Old Testament or the New Testament. It has everything to do with a doctrine in the Gospel records that some earnestly desire to disassociate from contemporary amenability. The doctrine is found in Matthew 5:32; 19:9; Mark 10:11-12; Luke 16:18. In these verses, Jesus Christ disallowed divorce and remarriage except for a single reason — “fornication.” Further, our Lord permitted remarriage to the innocent party alone. Understandably, Christ’s words are far from popular in society, and unfortunately, little more popular sometimes among Christians. There are a number of reasons why any proposal to dislodge the Gospel records from the New Testament canon is misguided and incorrect. (1) There are 400 years of divine silence between the close of the Old Testament and …

New Jerusalem

I read in Hebrews 12:22-23 that the Church and the new Jerusalem are the same thing, is this true? ~ David Peery The Methodist commentator, Adam Clarke, reflects your assessment of Hebrews 12:22-23. “[The heavenly Jerusalem] This phrase means the church of the New Testament…” (Adam Clarke’s Commentary, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1996 by Biblesoft) Jerusalem was literally the capital to ancient Israel and home to many Jews of antiquity. Further, Jerusalem is used figuratively in Scripture to represent the home of the people of God in the Christian Age on earth (Isaiah 2:2-3; Joel 2:32; Hebrews 12:22-23) as well as their eternal home in heaven (Galatians 4:26; Revelation 3:12; 21:2, 10; 22:19).

Restoration of Fellowship

Dear and respected Brother Louis Rushmore in Christ, Greetings and loving wishes to you. Will it possible for you to help us to have a clear understanding regarding the confession of the unfaithful member on their return to the fellowship with the church. Kindly send us some reference regarding this. Actually one person has left the church fellowship due to their own personal reasons and they started to worship personally in their own house only that family. Now that person has come back to the (home) local church to have fellowship. Now this local church is very much happily accepted, other than two persons all the church members are expecting the person to confess his willingness, regarding the reunion with the local church. So kindly help us to help this person in confessing about his repentance. Waiting to see your reply yours in Christ ~ philemonrajah, India The penalty for any sin for which one does not repent is spiritual death, should that sin still mar one’s soul as he passes from life to death or when Jesus returns. “For the wages of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord” (Romans 6:23). Christians who have sinned must repent and pray. “Repent therefore of this thy wickedness, and pray God, if perhaps the thought of thine heart may be forgiven thee” (Acts 8:22). Private sins of which people are generally not aware can be handled privately, but sins of a public nature or that could be …

Who Is the Israel of God Today?

Recently, a couple of different emails crossed our virtual desk respecting, “Who is the Israel of God today?” Certainly, the Bible clearly portrays the physical descendants of Abraham through Isaac, Jacob, etc. as the historical Israel of God. Unfortunately, many first century Jews relied solely on their ancestral relationship to Abraham for their spiritual hopes. John the Baptist warned, “And think not to say within yourselves, We have Abraham to our father: for I say unto you, that God is able of these stones to raise up children unto Abraham” (Matthew 3:9). God made a three-fold promise to Abraham that included descendants, land and a (conditional) spiritual blessing for the whole world (Genesis 12:1-3). Irrespective of one’s ancestry, only those who embrace the spiritual blessing on God’s terms are part of the Israel of God today. “For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh: But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God” (Romans 2:28-29). “…For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel: Neither, because they are the seed of Abraham, are they all children: but, In Isaac shall thy seed be called. That is, They which are the children of the flesh, these are not the children of God: but the children of the promise are counted for the seed” (Romans 9:6-8). In the Gospel Age, under the …

Worshipping on the Sabbath

Just wanted to comment on an article I just read about the Sabbath. It would appear that you have given my fleshly nature every reason to completely disregard the Ten commandments. I’m sorry, but my Bible does not indicate that the Commandments were only for the Jews. … Christ himself worshipped on the Seventh day. As I looked at Acts 20:7 I never saw any evidence that they were having a church service. In fact, it would seem that if you look at the text it was an evening meeting because Paul was leaving the next day. And I Cor. 16:1, 2 say nothing about Sunday worship! That must be a misprint on your website, because that is a huge stretch to say that just because they were to save some money they were having church service. … I thought the Lord Himself said nothing was to every be taken out of the Bible or added to it. It would seem that some are doing both when it comes to preaching Sunday worship. … Sincerely, Aaron Brown Irrespective of what translation of the Bible one uses, Scripture states that the Israelites alone were the specific recipients of the Ten Commandments, and the entire Mosaic Law (Judaism). “12 Keep the sabbath day to sanctify it, as the LORD thy God hath commanded thee. 13 Six days thou shalt labour, and do all thy work: 14 But the seventh day is the sabbath of the LORD thy God: in it thou shalt …

Exodus 32:32

I heard a preacher say (TV) yesterday that the dash in Exodus 32:32, was put there because some ancient Rabbi deleted some of Moses words? Have you ever heard anything about this? Thanks, Weaver Mills After consulting numerous written sources, I only encountered two instances where the “dash” was addressed. All other sources that I consulted, instead, simply treated the message contained in the verse and compared Moses’ statement with similar expressions throughout the Bible. Both references below to the “dash” in Exodus 32:32 discount the theory you heard on TV. However, the first citation below acknowledges that some critics come to a similar conclusion, which you heard on the program to which you referred. We are amazed at the scholars who make an ellipsis [sic] (an incomplete sentence) out of this. All it needs is proper punctuation, just as we have taken the liberty of rendering it here. Punctuation is altogether a human thing, anyway, and we have as much right to punctuate it accurately, as others do to make an ellipsis out of it by leaving out a comma! [“Exodus 32:30ff,” James Burton Coffman Bible Study Library. (Abilene: ACU Press) 1989.] For a similar form of expression, in which the conclusion is left to be supplied by the mind of the reader, see Dan 3:15; Luke 13:9; 19:42; John 6:62; Rom 9:22. [“Ex 32:7-35,” Barnes’ Notes, Electronic Database. (Seattle, WA: Biblesoft, Inc.) 1997.] Personally, having complete confidence in God’s willingness and ability to communicate with mankind in written language and …

Will One Go to for Using Tobacco?

Will one go to for using tobacco? I know tobacco use can lead to death. I know we are the temple of the Holy Spirit & we are to take care of it. I have known some good Christians who used tobacco. I remember my original home congregation taking 5 or 10 minutes between Bible Study & Worship for some to have their tobacco. Are those men going to for that? ~ Lemoyne D. Dotson The passage of Scripture to which reference above is made is: “Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of an harlot? God forbid. What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh. But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit. Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body. What? know ye not that your body is the temple of the Holy Ghost which is in you, which ye have of God, and ye are not your own? For ye are bought with a price: therefore glorify God in your body, and in your spirit, which are God’s” (1 Corinthians 6:15-20). In this context, the apostle Paul refers to the sin of fornication (1 Corinthians 6:9) and gives the additional reason not to commit fornication that it harms …

Creation of Light

Brother Rushmore: A question for your publication, if you wish to use it. The question was brought up in my Bible class. What light did God create in Genesis 1:3, if the sun and moon had not yet been created (vs.14ff)? ~ Rea Buttermore First, let’s notice the verses that pertain to the creative week and mention “light.” “And God said, Let there be light: and there was light. And God saw the light, that it was good: and God divided the light from the darkness. And God called the light Day, and the darkness he called Night. And the evening and the morning were the first day” (Genesis 1:3-5, emphasis added, ler). “And God said, Let there be lights in the firmament of the heaven to divide the day from the night; and let them be for signs, and for seasons, and for days, and years: And let them be for lights in the firmament of the heaven to give light upon the earth: and it was so. And God made two great lights; the greater light to rule the day, and the lesser light to rule the night: he made the stars also. And God set them in the firmament of the heaven to give light upon the earth, And to rule over the day and over the night, and to divide the light from the darkness: and God saw that it was good. And the evening and the morning were the fourth day” (Genesis 1:14-19, emphasis added, ler). The commentator, Albert …

Church Discipline for Which Sins

If we would consider drunkeness sinful enough for disfellowship, why would not smoking be considered for such also? ~ Rayford The querist poses the above question after quoting from an article about discipline in the pages of Gospel Gazette Online: “This terminology is not meant to suggest that some sin isn’t serious; it just acknowledges that not all sin requires discipline” and “a member of a church sins in some serious or obvious way.” It is true that all sins, regardless of what specifically the deeds may be, have the potential of condemning souls to spiritual death or: “For the wages of sin is death…” (Romans 6:23). For instance, lying is in the same list with the sins of murder and adultery, for which the impenitent doers of these things “shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone” (Revelation 21:8). However, there are a number of factors that must be considered before biblical withdrawal of fellowship occurs. One, only sins for which sinners refuse to repent are subject to church discipline. Many brethren repent of their sins immediately upon realization that they have sinned, often before others are aware of those sins. Still others repent of their sins once those sins are brought to their attention. Any Christian who sins and penitently prays to God for forgiveness (Acts 8:22; 1 John 1:9) is not a candidate for withdrawal of fellowship. Two, church discipline takes many forms and withdrawal of fellowship is the last and harshest aspect of church discipline. Repeated efforts to recover the fallen precede …

Eunuch

Can you tell me what the word eunuch means please? The simple standard dictionary definition adequately portrays the two ordinary meanings of the word “eunuch” as it is used in the Bible: “a castrated man placed in charge of a harem or employed as a chamberlain in a palace.”1 (Emphasis added, ler.) Anciently, a castrated male was entrusted with the care and safety of females because he was personally incapable of compromising their chastity. Further, typically eunuchs were trustworthy and loyal toward their masters. Owing to their dedication, they often were employed in other capacities in the administration of a king. Sometimes, the word eunuch (or another English word that nevertheless is translated from an original language word meaning “eunuch”) apparently does not refer to a castrated male. Therefore, a Hebrew, Greek or English word meaning “eunuch” may refer to a castrated male, a male not castrated but serving in a capacity of importance in a kingdom or a castrated male serving in some capacity of importance in a kingdom. The usual, literal reference to a eunuch, though, was to a castrated male. This is evident from a portion of the discourse of Jesus Christ about marriage and divorce that appears in Matthew 19. “For there are some eunuchs, which were so born from their mother’s womb: and there are some eunuchs, which were made eunuchs of men: and there be eunuchs, which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven’s sake. He that is able to receive it, let him receive …

Can a Christian Commit Sin?

Bro RUSHMORE, some brothers at the church where i serve as associate minister are accusing me of teaching false doctrine. 1) I believe that the Bible teaches that christians sin by walking contrary to God’s law. Some are teaching that christians cannot sin-1jn 3:9. 2) I believe that the Bible teaches that man is a free moral agent. He may choose life or death, heaven or, right or wrong- joshua 24:15. Some are teaching that man has no choice in his salvation or perdition. ~ robert Johnson The apostle Peter wrote about Christians who, perhaps in all sincerity, distort the Word of God, by which they harm themselves and those that they influence. In the Word of God there “…are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction” (1 Peter 3:16). Assuming that you have correctly represented them, your antagonists are ill prepared to assign heresy to you respecting the two items above. In fact, what you attribute to them are very serious departures from New Testament Christianity. Your opponents need to harmonize other passages in 1 John with 1 John 3:9, which they cannot possibly do while holding to their concept of the inability of a Christian to commit sin. Notice what the apostle John wrote earlier in his epistle that contradicts what some, where you worship, claim. Remember that First John was addressed to Christians. “But if we walk in the light, as …

Eating in the Church Building

Brother Rushmore, … eating in the church building … If you have any information on this issue that you could send me or a good source of information available, I would appreciate the help. Thanks, Bruce Stulting If eating in the church building were prohibited in the New Testament, then it would be a sin to eat in the church building. If the New Testament does not prohibit eating in the church building, then it is neither sinful to eat in nor to refrain from eating in the church building. However, if the New Testament does not prohibit eating in the church building, then making a religious law prohibiting eating in the church building where God made no such law is sinful (Deuteronomy 4:2; Proverbs 30:6; Revelation 22:18-19). Apparently, some sincere persons believe that it is sinful to eat in the church building, basing their conviction on an avowed respect for the Word of God. A high regard for God’s Word is praiseworthy. However, if the New Testament does not prohibit eating in the church building, then these sincere persons, who have a high regard for God’s Word and who have believed and affirmed that it is sinful to eat in the church building, must renounce that teaching. They do not have to eat in the church building, but they cannot justifiably teach such a doctrine if the New Testament does not prescribe it upon its pages. Doubtless a surface reading of 1 Corinthians 11:22 and 34 is the source of confusion as to whether it is biblically permissible to eat in …

Was Cornelius a Proselyte?

Bro. Rushmore, I have heard many of our brethren speak of Cornelius living under the Patriarchal dispensation at the time of Peter’s visit. This is the reason most give for his prayers being heard according to Acts 10:4. My question is could there be the possibility that Cornelius was a proselyte Jew? My reason for wondering this is the fact that Acts 10:3 tells us that he was praying about the ninth hour, which according to Acts 3:1 was one of the common hours of prayer in the temple. Acts 10:30 also states that Cornelius was fasting. Was fasting and prayer at the ninth hour common practice for a Gentile still living under the Patriarchal law or could there be the possibility that Cornelius was a proselyte Jew, who still being of the Gentile race despised just as much by true Jews, being the reason for Peter’s vision? In Christ, Rayford Henderson Inescapably, Cornelius was a Gentile originally from Italy (Acts 10:1), revered the true God and influenced his household to do the same (Acts 10:2), fasted as the Jews did (Acts 10:30), prayed as did the Jews at the ninth hour (Acts 10:30) and acted upon his confidence in the God of Judaism by giving to the poor Jews whose land he and other Roman soldiers occupied (Acts 10:2). Obviously, Cornelius was favorably inclined toward Judaism. However, had Cornelius proselyted to Judaism or was Cornelius still a Gentile when Scripture introduces him in Acts Ten? Overwhelming evidence confirms that …

Practicing Fellowship

My question is that I attend church every Sunday. Do I have to work for the church? Do I have to “get close” to the members? I am friendly and love my brothers and sisters. I just don’t want to do the fellowship things. I just want to go and worship God and be with other Christians. ~ James Buckley The primary Greek noun for the English word “fellowship” is “koinonia”; it means partnership or participation. It is used 20 times in the New Testament and is applied in various contexts to the relationship that Christians sustain between themselves and with the Godhead (1 Corinthians 1:9; 2 Corinthians 13:14; Galatians 2:9; 1 John 1:3, 7), the church contribution (2 Corinthians 8:4; translated as “contribution” Romans 15:26; translated as “distribution” 2 Corinthians 9:13; translated as “communicate” Hebrews 13:16), the Lord’s Supper (translated as “communion” 1 Corinthians 10:16) and suffering for the cause of Christ (Philippians 3:10). Two more Greek nouns and two Greek verbs are also translated as “fellowship” or a related word, similar to the references and citations just mentioned. In addition, compound Greek words that employ the preposition “sun” portray a union in whatever activity to which “sun” (or a form of it) is attached. Commonly, this results in a compound English word where “fellow” is half the word (“fellowdisciples” John 11:16; “fellowprisoners” Romans 16:7; Colossians 4:10; Philemon 23; “workfellow” Romans 16:21; “fellowhelper” 2 Corinthians 8:23; 3 John 8; “fellowcitizens” Ephesians 2:19; “fellowheirs” Ephesians 3:6; “fellowsoldier” Philippians 2:25; Philemon …

Why Were Babies Killed?

I want to know why young children were killed many times in the old testiment? ~ Jim Buckley Presumably, your question is why did God command that children as well as adults be killed in the conquest of Canaan by the Israelites. God did not command that all Gentiles (non-Israelites) with whom Israel warred be killed, but God did command that all souls (men, women and children) among the inhabitants of Canaan or Canaanites be killed. Deuteronomy 20:10-17 makes that subtle distinction: “When thou comest nigh unto a city to fight against it, then proclaim peace unto it. And it shall be, if it make thee answer of peace, and open unto thee, then it shall be, that all the people that is found therein shall be tributaries unto thee, and they shall serve thee. And if it will make no peace with thee, but will make war against thee, then thou shalt besiege it: And when the LORD thy God hath delivered it into thine hands, thou shalt smite every male thereof with the edge of the sword: But the women, and the little ones, and the cattle, and all that is in the city, even all the spoil thereof, shalt thou take unto thyself; and thou shalt eat the spoil of thine enemies, which the LORD thy God hath given thee. Thus shalt thou do unto all the cities which are very far off from thee, which are not of the cities of these nations. But of the cities …

Church Discipline

I have been a member of the Lord’s church for a little over twelve years now. In that many years I have yet to hear of a congregation in our area or the surrounding area disfellowship anyone for any reason. Many members have come and gone without even the slightest bit of concern for their spiritual welfare. It seems that many of our brethren have a difficult time determining matters of truth and matters of opinion and this makes the decision to approach the steps of discipline much harder. Also having multiple diffinitions of the term “faithful” is a growing problem in some of our congregations. This being said, I would simply like to know what unrepented sins are those for which steps of discipline should be taken? Would it be all such sins or just those that man has termed “greater sins” such as fornication or adultery? I realize sin has no size in God’s eyes, but most Christians seem to have trouble seeing this. Take as much time as you need to answer this question for me if you can, for I’ve pondered the asking of it for almost twelve years now. In Him, Rayford Henderson As far as I can ascertain from your query, you have a biblical perspective of a local congregation’s (often sorely neglected) responsibility to police itself with the Word of God. Abundant biblical evidence notes the spiritual harm that befalls both individuals who needing a spiritual spanking do not receive such and the …

What Must a Preacher Say at a Baptism?

A little over two decades ago, I appeared on a televised panel of preachers in west Tennessee. It was our mission to field religious questions, for which we were to provide biblical answers. One of the questions that made its way to me was, “What must the preacher say at a baptism?” My answer sparked several viewer complaints. Yet, if the answer I provided was biblically accurate then (and it was), of course, the same answer is just as valid today. Essentially, the question is, “What does the Bible teach that one must say when baptizing a person?” The Bible, especially the New Testament, is the sole basis of authority for anything and everything any human can do or say in the realm of religion (2 Timothy 3:16-17; 2 Peter 1:3). What, then, does the New Testament teach that one must say when administering baptism to some soul? Please note that there is a subtle difference between “must say,” “must do” and “must do and may say.” Doubtless whoever posed the original question had in mind one or two specific passages, such as Matthew 28:18-20 and Acts 2:38. The former reads, in part, “baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost” and the latter reads, in part, “Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins.” Looking closely, one notices that neither passage says anything about what one administering baptism must say. In Matthew’s account, Jesus instructed …

Galatians 6:6, 10

The scripture you quoted from Galatians has nothing to do with the collection. Yes, I feel I should do good for anyone I come in contact with as I have opportunity. But that has nothing to do with the collection for the saints. ~ Loria McCrimon You failed to discern the observations made relative to Galatians 6:6, 10. Both verses are in the same context, the same breath, if you will. They read: “Let him that is taught in the word communicate unto him that teacheth in all good things” (Galatians 6:6, emphasis added, ler) and “As we have therefore opportunity, let us do good unto all men, especially unto them who are of the household of faith” (Galatians 6:10). Whatever the revenue source is for verse six to financially support preachers (edification and evangelism) is the same revenue source for verse 10 to financially support the needy (benevolence). One cannot logically exclude congregational finances from Galatians 6:10 and retain congregational finances in Galatians 6:6. Supporting preaching or benevolence is neither exclusively individual nor congregational responsibility. The Greek word for “communicate” in Galatians 6:6 is “koinoneo.” It is translated “be partaker,” “communicate” and “distribute.” The word means “to come into communion or fellowship with, to become a sharer, be made a partner.” The same word appears in the following passages: “Distributing to the necessity of saints; given to hospitality” (Romans 12:13). “It hath pleased them verily; and their debtors they are. For if the Gentiles have been made partakers of their spiritual things, their duty is …

That Special Someone

Good day to you! I was hoping to get some insight regarding an issue that I am most puzzled about. GOD has that special someone for most of us, right? I’ve heard Pastors say that the LORD has someone for me and I will know it when that special person comes into my life, If I marry her or not is up to me. I believe I met this person and she has the basic qualities I’m looking for, i.e. Is a believer but she has a 7 year old child that I did not expect. My question … Could the LORD really send me my mate with a 7 year old? Am I looking at her having a child something that I should not necessarily take as a negative, but a blessing? HOW? GOD also says to obey my Mom and Dad and If they feel I should not be with her, do I take that as good advise because they are judgmental and don’t want me to be involved with someone that already has a child? Any feedback would be greatly appreciated as this is something that is really bothering me. GOD bless, Frank There is nothing in the Bible of which I am aware that teaches “GOD has that special someone for most of us.” Obviously, God presented one woman, Eve, to Adam and she was “that special someone” for Adam and there could be no others. Further, God may have determined and executed through providence that certain others …

Who Were the Libertines?

A reader passed on to us a rambling confusion sent to him, in which someone erroneously supposed that the Libertines of Acts 9:6 were Gentiles, that the synagogue means the church and that the apostle Paul taught against the Law of Moses whereas Stephen did not. It is hardly useful to include those rambles here, and yet difficult also to address concisely a number of artificially connected notions. Nevertheless, we try below. A Libertine was a Roman freedman. It does not specify nationality, but status of citizenship. Technically, a Libertine could be Gentile or Jew. In the context of Acts 6, the Synagogue of the Libertines would be decidedly Jewish. Note the observation of Robertson. The Libertines (Latin libertinus, a freedman or the son of a freedman) were Jews, once slaves of Rome (perhaps descendants of the Jews taken to Rome as captives by Pompey), now set free and settled in Jerusalem and numerous enough to have a synagogue of their own. (Robertson’s Word Pictures in the New Testament, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 1997 by Biblesoft & Robertson’s Word Pictures in the New Testament. Copyright (c) 1985 by Broadman Press) Vincent concurs and adds the following: In Jerusalem, and probably in other large cities, the several synagogues were arranged according to nationalities, and even crafts. Thus we have in this verse mention of the synagogues of the Cyrenians, Alexandrians, Cilicians, and Asiatics. Libertines is a Latin word (Libertini, “freedmen”), and means here Jews or their descendants who had been taken …

Following Christ

What do you understand by the expression to “follow Christ”? In what way does following Christ differ from following other people? ~ Carol Kong The apostle Paul urged others to follow Christ by imitating him to the extent he was following Christ. “Be ye followers of me, even as I also am of Christ” (1 Corinthians 11:1). The Greek word for “followers” here means “imitators.” The apostle added to his encouragement to imitate him as he imitated Christ with these words: “Now I praise you, brethren, that ye remember me in all things, and keep the ordinances, as I delivered them to you” (1 Corinthians 11:2). They were to continue practicing the Gospel, which was empowered to save them (Romans 1:16). Likewise, the apostle John, by inspiration, stressed the urgency of abiding in the doctrine of Christ, that is, the Gospel or New Testament doctrine. “Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and the Son. If there come any unto you, and bring not this doctrine, receive him not into your house, neither bid him God speed: For he that biddeth him God speed is partaker of his evil deeds” (2 John 9-11). In addition, the terms “disciple” and “Christian” each involve the concept of following Christ. The latter portion of Acts 11:26 uses both words: “… And the disciples were called Christians first in Antioch.” The word “disciple” means a learner …

Seven Deadly Sins

I know that there is 7 deadly sins. I have heard that there should have been an 8th one. Can you tell me what that was? A reply would be greatly appreciated. The Roman Catholic Church is credited with having coined the phrase, seven deadly sins. That list of seven sins contains pride, anger, envy, sloth, lust, covetousness and gluttony. (McClintock and Strong Encyclopedia, Electronic Database. Copyright (c) 2000 by Biblesoft) I am not aware of a so-called eighth deadly sin. However, the Bible attributes to every sin for which one has not repented the capacity to condemn a soul to a devil’s. “For the wages of sin is death …” (Romans 6:23). Hence, the catalogs of sin appearing in the New Testament list all manner of sins without an artificial distinction as to which sins can condemn a soul and which other sins are not bad enough to cause one to miss heaven and spend eternity in. “Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived. Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor homosexuals, nor sodomites, nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners will inherit the kingdom of God” (1 Corinthians 6:9-10, NKJV). “Now the works of the flesh are evident, which are: adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lewdness, idolatry, sorcery, hatred, contentions, jealousies, outbursts of wrath, selfish ambitions, dissensions, heresies, envy, murders, drunkenness, revelries, and the like; of which I tell you beforehand, just as I also told you in time past, …

Hermeneutics: The Study of Interpretation

… where do we get our instructions about interpretation. The ole’ standard by command, example and necessary inference is good till we get to something that folks see differently because they may be using a different standard by which to interpret a given scripture. ~ Steve Summers Hermeneutics is the study of interpretation. It is “the study of the methodological principles of interpretation (as of the Bible).”1 HERMENEUTICS. This term, from Gk. herme登euo (‘interpret’), is used to denote (a) the study and statement of the principles on which a text — for present purposes, the biblical text — is to be understood, or (b) the interpretation of the text in such a way that its message comes home to the reader or hearer.2 Contrary to what some may imagine, the common procedure by which one understands any set of instructions in the secular world is identical to the procedure by which one interprets biblical text. Hermeneutics is not some sort of religious apparatus that has no relationship to the world in which we live. Hence, the commands or imperative statements, approved examples and implications (from which we necessarily infer) by which one can properly evaluate biblical text are the same means by which each of us understands communication between any persons. In other words, logic or what is able to be reasoned from available evidence is equally adept for understanding both religious and secular communications. Little children learn the language within a few short years, complete with an understanding of the significance …

Seasons in the Last Days

Where can I find the scripture that address the issue of not knowing one season from the other in the last days? Biblically, the “last days” refers to the Christian dispensation — synonymous with the period of Christianity or the Gospel Age. Prophetically, the “last days” pertained to the establishment of the kingdom or church in Jerusalem (Micah 4:1-2). “And it shall come to pass in the last days, that the mountain of the LORD’s house shall be established in the top of the mountains, and shall be exalted above the hills; and all nations shall flow unto it. And many people shall go and say, Come ye, and let us go up to the mountain of the LORD, to the house of the God of Jacob; and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths: for out of Zion shall go forth the law, and the word of the LORD from Jerusalem” (Isaiah 2:2-3). Likewise, the prophet Joel foretold of the establishment of the kingdom or church in Jerusalem in the “last days” (Joel 2:28-3:2). The apostle Peter in Acts 2:16-21 quotes the Joel prophecy and applies it to the events of Acts 2 (i.e., the baptism of the Holy Spirit upon the apostles and the establishment of the church). Jesus, preceding his Ascension, sent the apostles to Jerusalem accordingly (Luke 24:47-49; Acts 1:4, 8-12). Jesus, Scripture says, conducted his ministry in the “last days.” “Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom …

Atheist Cries Foul!

The main thing I’m trying to imply is that many Christians do things that are immoral and wronge. I am an athiest and I have always donated to charity and kept a good will. Wars have been fought over god and I wouldn’t think god (if there is a god) would like that. The other thing I would like to state is your cruel usage of propaganda against athiests. Though some athiests are as you have described them the same goes for religious groups. The talibon, the KKK, and all racial gangs are just as bad as the worst athiest. I will not try to convince you that there isn’t a god but all I ask is that we live side by sides and respect each others views. You act as if being athiest is a horrible sin but why should God even care if we worship him. As long as I don’t do anything wronge I don’t see why God should really care. Thanks for your time. ~ Joe Kramer-Miller Admittedly, Christians as well as non-Christians, including atheists, “do things that are immoral and wronge.” That is called sin. “For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God” (Romans 3:23). One might say that non-Christians major in unrighteousness and minor in righteousness, while Christians major in righteousness and minor in unrighteousness. The difference between non-Christians and Christians, fundamentally, is that Christians have been forgiven of their past sins (Mark 16:16; Acts 2:38) and can receive forgiveness …

The Matthew 22:1-14 Parable

As a growing Christian what is the conclusion of the parable for John 22:1-14. Bless you. ~ Lorraine C. Watson You must mean Matthew 22:1-14. That parable is similar to the parable of the Great Supper that may be found in Gospel Gazette Online at: https://www.gospelgazette.com/gazette/2001/jun/page2.htm The marriage feast represents the church or kingdom, which finally will be taken to heaven when Jesus returns again (1 Thessalonians 4:13-18). The King is God; the King’s Son is Jesus Christ. The ungrateful guests and murderers of the King’s servants are those who disregard God’s invitation into the church or kingdom (even abusing and killing some of God’s messengers). Between the invitation to the original guests and the replacement guests, all mankind (Jews and Gentiles) are invited by God. However, even some who accept the invitation do not make adequate preparation to be permitted to remain; not everyone who becomes a child of God will be saved finally (2 Peter 2:20-22). The outer darkness, weeping and gnashing of teeth represent removal from the presence of God into (2 Thessalonians 1:7-10). The many called but few chosen represents the sad fact that the majority of accountable souls will be lost and comparatively few will be saved in heaven (Matthew 7:13-14).

Located Preacher or Mutual Edification?

A sometimes critic of our efforts through Gospel Gazette Online challenges the hiring of a preacher as unscriptural. Proponents of this view typically oppose what they refer to as a located preacher and purport that mutual edification is the biblically required means of preaching in any established (with elders) local congregation. These people mean well and are sincere. See the following Gospel Gazette Online URLs for a treatment of preachers, ministers or evangelists. The current page will not redo what appears there, but will address the debate suggested in the title above. https://www.gospelgazette.com/gazette/2001/nov/page12.htm https://www.gospelgazette.com/gazette/2002/jan/page20.htm The apostle Paul, we are told, cannot be used as an example of a preacher because he was an apostle. How convenient to attempt an exclusion of invaluable evidence with merely one’s “say so.” Paul stated that he was appointed both a preacher and an apostle; he did not argue that they were one in the same (1 Timothy 2:7). Further, Paul’s traveling companions are categorized as just that, traveling companions, in an additional attempt to exclude from review crucial evidence respecting the question under consideration. However, especially Timothy was a preacher (2 Timothy 4:1-8). Instead of jettisoning the evidence, the following lines propose an examination of some of the evidence, without a prejudicial predisposition respecting it. Preachers Besides the Apostles The previous articles (cited in the URLs above) establish that the words preacher, minister and evangelist essentially describe the same function, though each of the words suggests a slightly different emphasis. The biblical evidence teaches that persons beyond the apostles also functioned as preachers of …

Names of God

I am looking for the name of God in the Bible. not titles. what was it in Hebrew, Greek, Aramaic or whatever  languages were used? was it Yeshua? Yahweh? or? Did Jesus have a different name? thank you ~ Michael Vantrease Names are primarily means of identifying persons or things and distinguishing them from other persons or things. In so doing, names may involve descriptions or relationships as a part of that identification or distinction. Hence, most of the names of God in the Bible fall into the category of describing him or his relationship to his creation. Besides these descriptive terms or titles, many of which are applied to idol gods as well, there is a single, unique name ascribed to the God of the Bible. That name is commonly rendered as “Jehovah.” “And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them” (Exodus 6:3). “That men may know that thou, whose name alone is JEHOVAH, art the most high over all the earth” (Psalm 83:18). Strictly speaking, Yahweh is the only ‘name’ of God.”1 However, God had this to say when Moses inquired as to whom he should tell the nation of Israel sent him. “And Moses said unto God, Behold, when I come unto the children of Israel, and shall say unto them, The God of your fathers hath sent me unto you; and they shall say to me, What is …

Contemporary Christian Music

1. Do Bible principals allow for Christians to listen to any religious music as a secular form of entertainment with the instrument, such as Contemporary Christian Music (CCM) that is so popular among the youth of our time as well as adults? 2. Can a Christian perform individual acts of worship during the week in addition to that of the primary worship of god on the Lord’s Day, such as the songs we sing during mid-week Bible service or Gospel meetings or singings? ~ Edward R. Henderson, Jr. Every instance of religious music associated with the church or Christians and about which one can read in the New Testament is a cappella or singing without instrumental accompaniment (Acts 16:25; 1 Corinthians 14:15; James 5:13.). The two primary New Testament passages that address singing in Christian worship are: “Speaking to yourselves in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing and making melody in your heart to the Lord” (Ephesians 5:19). “Let the word of Christ dwell in you richly in all wisdom; teaching and admonishing one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord” (Colossians 3:16). Singing is the type of worshipful music authorized in the New Testament. Naturally, then, singing is the type of music authorized for use in the Lord’s Day worship each first day of the week. Likewise, whenever and wherever Christians assemble (e.g., Bible classes, Gospel meetings, lectureships, chapel services), the type of music authorized is singing of psalms, hymns and …

Saints Only Benevolence?

… benevolence towards non-christians. The Bible warns us against burdening the church in 1 Tim. 5:16. It also gives limitations concerning a christian widow who should be allowed to receive help. A few are she should have devoted herself to every good work, washed the feet of the saints, and have a reputation for good works. These limitations seem to be pointing only to a Christian woman. One other thing I would like to say is the Bible seems to tell me in Acts 5:4 that while money is ours we can do as we please, but once it is in the church treasury it is no longer under our control. That we as a church should use this money as according to examples and direct command. It doesn’t make much sense to me to use the church’s money for schools and other things which burden the church. It seems to me these things and others are the responsibility of the individual christian. We have to draw a line somewhere and it has to be where God has drawn it. Very Sincerely, Loria McCrimon First Timothy 5:3-16 pertains to Christian widows. Some of these are destitute and have no families able or willing to care for them. Christian widows who meet certain qualifications listed in that context may become the permanent beneficiaries of the church. Widows who have family members, though, are to be cared for by those family members. Young widows are charged to marry. None of this addresses …

Mothers’ Day Out

I have a question about the church building being used for Mothers’ Morning out programs and day care centers. Recently, a congregation with which I am familiar, started a Mothers’s Morning Out program. It is available on Friday mornings at a certain price each month. I understand the work of the Church is covered in three areas, Evangelizism, Benevolence and Edification of the Saints. Is this congregation crossing a line with this program?  Can these types of programs fit into one of the areas of the work of the Church? I cannot find much of anyting that helps me here. I need some guidance. I just don’t know how to answer this when I am asked about it by my children or anyone else for that matter. Thanks for your help and the GGO. Kind regards, Bob Butler Church buildings are not mentioned in the New Testament. Therefore, restrictions some may want to make regarding the use of those facilities cannot be made based on commands or direct statements and approved examples respecting church buildings. One must rely, rather, on principles coming forth from implications present in Scripture. From those implications, we must correctly infer applications. New Testament commands and examples pertaining to the church worshipping imply the necessity of a place in which to worship. We infer, then, that the church may secure a regular place in which to worship. A place in which to seek edification and from which to pursue evangelism or benevolence likewise contributes to the …

Special Servants

I am particularly interested in your insight to the current issue of “women’s role in the church.” There are some congregations which are eliminating the ‘office’ of deacon in what I perceive to be an effort to allow women to serve in unique positions and avoiding calling them ‘deconess’s’ by calling them ‘special servants’ (both men and women). There is also the issue of women participating in the worship services in a public, leadership role. ~ Paul Dennis, Bedford, TX The role of women in the church and in the home has been a topic of keen interest in recent years. Consequently, several articles in Gospel Gazette Online are dedicated to that question. Go to the archive page and search for “role of women” and opt for “find exact phrase.” That search ought to yield sufficient resources to ascertain that God does not permit a woman to occupy “in the worship services in a public, leadership role.” The New Testament reveals that there were special servants in addition to deacons. These special servants did not displace deacons and some of the special servants were women. “I commend unto you Phebe our sister, which is a servant of the church which is at Cenchrea” (Romans 16:1). The word “servant” here is from the same Greek word from which the word “deacon” comes. Yet, depending upon the context in which “diakonos” (in one of its forms) occurs, it may mean “servant” or minister (Ephesians 3:7). In the case of Phebe, given that there are …

The Fluctuating Date of Easter

Why does Easter fall on a different date each year? To illustrate the querist’s question, in the near future, Easter falls earliest on the calendar on March 23, 2008 and latest on April 23, 2011.1 “… in the West it cannot occur later than April 25 nor earlier than March 22.”2 What can account for the difference of a full month between these dates? It is observed and celebrated on the first Sunday following the full moon that occurs on or after March 21-or one week later if the full moon falls on Sunday. In other words, Easter falls between March 22 and April 25.3 The reason, though, (1) that Easter occurs when it does, and further, that (2) the word “Easter” is associated at all with Christianity is owing to the manmade religious laws where God made none. The rule was finally adopted, in the 7th century, to celebrate Easter on the Sunday following the 14th day of the calendar moon which comes on, or after, the vernal equinox which was fixed for March 21. This is not always the astronomical moon, but near enough for practical purposes, and is determined without astronomical calculation by certain intricate rules adopted by ecclesiastical authority. (emphasis supplied, ler)4 Besides not being a Bible doctrine, Easter originally referred to a pagan goddess and the occasion annually when she was worshipped. The pagan feast occurred each year near the time of the Jewish Passover. The Catholic Church, desiring to distinguish its annual commemoration of Christ’s resurrection from the Jewish Passover, adopted …

Old Testament End-of-Time Prophecies?

Are there any prophecies in the OT regarding the end of the world or the second coming of Christ? A brother in Christ said that all prophecy in the OT relates to the coming of Christ and the establishment of the church. Thanks in advance. David M. Franklin Generally, the Old Testament prophecies with which Bible students are most familiar pertain to the Messiah and his kingdom. However, it may be an overstatement to affirm that “all prophecy in the OT relates to the coming of Christ and the establishment of the church.” Perhaps not as elaborate as many prophecies (but not all prophecies are elaborate, Genesis 3:15), an Old Testament reference, such as Ecclesiastes 12:13-14, is prophetic about final judgment. “Let us hear the conclusion of the whole matter: Fear God, and keep his commandments: for this is the whole duty of man. For God shall bring every work into judgment, with every secret thing, whether it be good, or whether it be evil.” Ecclesiastes 12:13-14 is a mirror image of 2 Corinthians 5:10 and comparable to the depiction of the great white throne judgment of Revelation. “For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ; that every one may receive the things done in his body, according to that he hath done, whether it be good or bad” (2 Corinthians 5:10). “And I saw a great white throne, and him that sat on it, from whose face the earth and the heaven fled away; and there …

Locust

IN MATTHEW 3 V.3 WHERE THEY ARE TALKING ABOUT THE LOCUSTS. ARE THEY THE LOCUST LIKE WE HAVE TODAY? The following quotation is the most concise and informative portrayal of which I am aware of the locust that was typical and thus available in Palestine for the prophet, John the Baptist, to eat. There are ten Hebrew words used in Scripture to signify locust. In the New Testament locusts are mentioned as forming part of the food of John the Baptist (Matt. 3:4; Mark 1:6). By the Mosaic law they were reckoned “clean,” so that he could lawfully eat them. The name also occurs in Rev. 9:3, 7, in allusion to this Oriental devastating insect. Locusts belong to the class of Orthoptera, i.e., straight-winged. They are of many species. The ordinary Syrian locust resembles the grasshopper, but is larger and more destructive. “The legs and thighs of these insects are so powerful that they can leap to a height of two hundred times the length of their bodies. When so raised they spread their wings and fly so close together as to appear like one compact moving mass.” Locusts are prepared as food in various ways. Sometimes they are pounded, and then mixed with flour and water, and baked into cakes; “sometimes boiled, roasted, or stewed in butter, and then eaten.” [Easton, M. G., M. A. D. D., Easton’s Bible Dictionary, (Oak Harbor, WA: Logos Research Systems, Inc.) 1996.]

What Is the Cup?

Dear Brother, your answer to the question about the use of individual cups or a cup in the distribution of the fruit of the vine was one of the worst I’ve seen in sometime. The cup represents the one new covenant that God has made with man through Jesus Christ 1Cor.11:25. The cup and the blood are not the same thing! The bread represents His body, the fruit of the vine His blood and the cup the new covenant. I can read and understand what the Lord had in mind but I can’t read what you are practicing with respect to the Lord’s Supper. As your brother I ask you to reconsider your position on this important subject. ~ Randy Blankenship I’m curious! What does the plate that bears the bread represent? First, look carefully at the passage cited where purportedly the “cup” represents the “one new covenant” and does not represent the blood of Christ. 23For I have received of the Lord that which also I delivered unto you, That the Lord Jesus the same night in which he was betrayed took bread: 24And when he had given thanks, he brake it, and said, Take, eat: this is my body, which is broken for you: this do in remembrance of me.  25After the same manner also he took the cup, when he had supped, saying, This cup is the new testament in my blood: this do ye, as oft as ye drink it, in remembrance of me. 26For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew …

Religion and Spirituality

… I am currently studying Stage 2 Religion. I was just wondering if you had the time to email me with the answers to a few questions. What is the definition of Religion to you? What is the definition of Spirituality to you? Is there any connection between the two? Emily Bussenschutt, a student at Thomas More College, Salisbury, Australia, Religious questions for which one desires biblical answers are welcome. The international survey via the Internet that we have received does not exactly follow our purpose in receiving and answering questions. However, perhaps the following response will prove useful. The word “religion” is variously represented in the New Testament. One of its definitions, from the Greek, threskeia, has to do with the visible, external aspect of religion, which may be manifested in worship or in deportment, and ideally will be obvious in both (Acts 26:5; James 1:26-27). Another Greek word, theosebeia, translated “godliness,” means reverence for God (1 Timothy 2:10). Still another Greek word, eusebeia, translated “godliness,” pertains to the piety exhibited toward God in Christianity (2 Timothy 3:5; 2 Peter 3:11). The New Testament portrays religion, reverence and godliness or piety as inseparable components of the New Testament religion, Christianity. Hence, religion that is ‘practiced religiously’ and spirituality are one in the same. Accordingly, a valid dictionary definition for religion is the ‘service and worship of God’ and ‘devotion to religious faith.’ Likewise, spirituality by definition is ‘sensitivity or attachment to religious values.’ Therefore, the New Testament contains rebukes …

What Constitutes an Assembly?

What constitutes an “assembly?” ~ Jim Taylor The word “church” is used in three senses within the New Testament to refer to the divine institution that Jesus established and over which he is the head. There is the universal sense (Ephesians 5:25; Colossians 1:18), the congregational sense (1 Corinthians 1:2; Galatians 1:1) and the assembly of a local congregation (1 Corinthians 11:18; 14:4-5). First Corinthians chapters 11 and 14 essentially provide a biblical definition of the worship assembly of the church. The assembly is described as a coming together: “come together” (1 Corinthians 11:17), “come together in the church” (1 Corinthians 11:18) and “come together therefore into one place” (1 Corinthians 11:20). First Corinthians 14:23 summarizes the definition of the worship assembly thus: “the whole church be come together into one place.” Hence, the worship assembly is when the whole church assembles together in one place at the same time. Doubtless, there are other occasions on which the whole church might come together in one place at the same time for purposes other than to worship God (e.g., fellowship meal, bridal shower or wedding, church work, a public event, etc.). A worship assembly involves the purpose of worshipping God, the entire church (as much as can be noting that some cannot always be present and others absent themselves without justification), coming together, at one place and at the same time. Therefore, the biblical definition of a worship assembly does not support parallel assemblies of the same congregation. In addition, gatherings of church members for which the purpose …

Committing Adultery

Dear Louis, I have read, with interest, an article by Wayne Jackson in the December 2001 issue of Gospel Gazette. In the second paragraph under the heading, Matthew 19:8-9 he has; “And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except for fornication, and shall marry another, is committing adultery.” I have searched every version in my computer and did not find a version that reads ‘is committing adultery.’ If there is such a version would you please enlighten me?  Is it OK to change the reading to what we would like for the Bible to say?  Is this any less dishonest than the Baptist when they insert ‘only’ after faith in Eph. 2:8?  Is the cause of ‘TRUTH’ served by misrepresentation of what the Bible says? I think not! Too much has been said and written by uninformed brethren on this and many other subjects to try to impose their conclusions on others! I hope you will be more careful as to the content of articles appearing on your website. Sincerely, Ralph M. Roe “Committeth adultery” (KJV, ASV) or “commits adultery” (NKJV, NASV, RSV, NIV) in Matthew 19:9 is translated from the Greek, moichatai, which is the present tense verb for “adultery.” The present tense is the main tense for present action, and since it overlaps with the speaker’s comment on it, it will normally refer to a continuing present action or state. It may be translated as a Simple Present (“I loose”) or as a Present Progressive …

Mind and Heart

I would appreciate very much if you would explain … on the Mind and Heart. I have always thought they were the same, but in the last year, the subject has come in 3 different classes and only one out of the three teachers have said it was the same. ~ Lottie Pickett, Franklin, NC Matthew 22:37 illustrates that sometimes the words “mind” and “heart” are not precisely the same: “Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind“; see also Hebrews 10:16. In addition, several Hebrew and Greek words are translated “mind” and have various meanings. Consider some of the New Testament appearances of the English word “mind.” The Greek word, dianoia, refers to the thinking part of man or the exercise of his intellect (Matthew 22:37; Mark 12:30; Luke 10:27; Ephesians 2:3; Colossians 1:21; Hebrews 8:10; 10:16; 1 Peter 1:13; 2 Peter 3:1). Consequently, dianoia is also translated as “in the imagination” (Luke 1:51) and “understanding” (Ephesians 1:18; 4:18; 1 John 5:20). The Greek word, sophroneo, means to be in one’s right mind, as in sane or sober (“right mind” Mark 5:15; Luke 8:35; “soberly” Romans 12:3; “be sober” 2 Corinthians 5:13; 1 Peter 4:7; “be sober minded” Titus 2:6). The Greek word, dialogizomai, means to consider, reason or think (“cast in her mind” Luke 1:29; “reason,” “reasoning” or “reasoned” Matthew 16:7-8; 21:25; Mark 2:6, 8, 16-17; Luke 5:21-22; Luke 20:14; “disputed” Mark 9:33; “mused” Luke 3:15; …

Singing Hymns for Entertainment

Is there anything wrong with having Christians gather together for the purpose of listening to a group of young people (some baptized) sing spiritual songs for entertainment? ~ Jim Taylor Singing of “spiritual songs” is regulated by chiefly the following two passages. “Speaking to yourselves in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing and making melody in your heart to the Lord” (Ephesians 5:19). “Let the word of Christ dwell in you richly in all wisdom; teaching and admonishing one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord” (Colossians 3:16). Psalms, hymns and spiritual songs are relatively equal to each other and represent the type of music (vocal and intelligible) authorized in the New Testament for worshipping God. The contexts in which these passages appear do not treat a worship service but address a form of worship, irrespective of when and where it may occur. Only the communion among the acts of worship observed on the Lord’s Day is restricted to the Lord’s Day. Hence, whenever and wherever a Christian or Christians sing psalms, hymns and spiritual songs they are singing songs that are intended for worshipping God. Nowhere can one discern from the New Testament that the psalms, hymns and spiritual songs that Christians sing are designed for entertainment. As such, every act of worship, including psalms, hymns and spiritual songs, is primarily directed to God as the audience, whereas the participants in the worship are not receiving but giving the worship. …

Non-Institutional Church

… I am a member of a non-institutional church of christ.I have been trying to study why we have such a difference between the institutional and non-institutional churches. The Elders of our church really have not helped me at all to understand what you believe that is different from us. I’ve tried to find material online on a list of institutional churches’ websites, but to no avail. The main thing I can’t find any information about is if there is a difference between the work of the individual and the church. I know that is the major dividing factor between us, but it seems no one on either “side” has any information or scripture to support either one. For instance, in Jas. 1:27, to visit widows and orphans, I was wondering, do institutional churches believe that is a command to Churches and Individuals? Is there any material that you could send me or a website that has study material on it that defines all the arguements between us? I am particularly interested in the idea that the church is allowed to perform the duties of an individual and that the individual can act as the local church. Also, do you believe that the church can carry out the Jas 1:27 command or help Christians carry out that command? Please do not be offended by anything I might have said that has offended you. I am simply trying to figure this out without any prejudiced statements to either way. I do …

Having Faithful Children

In your paragraph three, you state that Having reared children in the home successfully is one of the qualifications to become an elder. I could not find that qualification in Timothy or Titus. Paul wrote to Titus and said, in Titus 1:6, “namely, if any man be above reproach, the husband of one wife, having children who believe, not accused of dissipation or rebellion.” The “having children who believe” is present active tense in the Greek, not Past tense as your statement says, “Having reared.” The qualification concerning believing children is something that is going on at the time the man is qualified. If it is not a “present” characteristic, then the man does not meet God’s qualifications. As a matter of fact, it is a present qualification just as the “must be” in verse 7. Is there a difference between becoming qualified and perpetually qualifying for something.? Think about it, with regard to the qualifications listed in verses 7-9 of Titus 1. If a man at one time was “not self-willed,” but then becomes self-willed, is he qualified? What about a man that was “not addicted to wine,” but then becomes addicted to wine, is he qualified? Does the man have to “qualify” or “perpetually qualify” to serve as an elder? Are we going beyond God’s qualifications if we disqualify a man who is “fond of sordid gain” because in the past he was “not fond of sordid gain?” Have we disarmed God’s Word respecting congregational leadership by looking …

Communion: One Cup vs. Multiple Cups

We are currently struggling with an issue concerning Communion. Is it okay to use individual cups, or do we have to drink out of one cup? Your opinion would be greatly appreciated, because it’s really a problem issue within our church. Thanks. In Christ, Harry S Sadly, the question you pose is one that has needlessly buffeted many congregations. The problem stems from the laudable desire to appeal to biblical authority coupled with an unfortunate misunderstanding of how to interpret language in general and biblical language in particular. For the most part, the same procedures by which one would understand language used daily, including among family members, is the same basis by which one correctly understands God’s message in the Bible. Whereas even children typically understand the daily language about them, often people bring an artificial ignorance to biblical interpretation. For instance, almost no one of any age beyond toddlers has any difficulty at all understanding the difference between figurative and nonfigurative language as we speak to one another daily. Yet, interject Bible text into a discussion and even otherwise accomplished adults stumble over words and meanings that outside of a religious context every elementary school student understands. The foregoing, generally, is precisely the problem of whether in communion a congregation is authorized to use multiple cups or is restricted to sharing the same, single cup. The troubling words “the cup” referring to communion appear in several New Testament passages (Matthew 26:26-29; Mark 14:23-25; Luke 22:15-20; 1 Corinthians 10:16, 21; 11:23-29). However, even an …

Communion Twice on Sunday

I have a relative in another state who has been worshipping at a congregation where the elders have decided that all members should partake of the Lord’s Supper twice each Sunday. Have you ever heard of this before? If you have time, please send me your thoughts on this. I know “there is nothing new under the sun,” but I have never heard of this before. Thanks for your comments. In Christ, Ken Gardner While I have heard brethren think out loud respecting the observance of communion at each worship period on Sundays, this is my first knowledge of any congregation implementing this practice. Doubtless, those who propose this dual observance of the Lord’s Supper on Sunday, corresponding with assembling twice on Sunday which most congregations do, are sincerely trying to be guided by the New Testament and please God. Such persons’ sincerity and devotion to God are not questioned. The apostle Paul corrected abuses in the church of God at Corinth regarding its observance of the Lord’s Supper (1 Corinthians 11:20-30). In that context, among other admonitions, the apostle wrote: “For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord’s death till he come” (1 Corinthians 11:26). He addressed the manner (1 Corinthians 11:27, 29 ‘worthily’) in which the communion was to be observed, but he did not stipulate the frequency, surely because they needed no correction about the frequency of observance (i.e., frequency was not part of the Corinthian error). However, brethren who contemplate observing communion twice on …

Husband of One Wife

I enjoy your web page. I was searching for an article on deacons, found it, but it didn’t answer my question which is, is a divorced man, who has a scriptural divorce and is remarried, able to be a deacon? The question is an issue; some say yes, some say the scriptures aren’t specific about this. One qualification, the husband of one wife. Would appreciate your thoughts and scripture on this. Thank you for your time, a sister in Christ, Zella Bluthardt Commentators are not unanimous as to whether the biblical phrase “husband of one wife” prohibits polygamy or a second marriage for those who would be elders (1 Timothy 3:2) or deacons (1 Timothy 3:12). For instance, Albert Barnes and Adam Clarke view the phrase as pertaining to polygamy, not biblically lawful second marriages. (1) It is the most obvious meaning of the language, and it would doubtless be thus understood by those to whom it was addressed. At a time when polygamy was not uncommon, to say that a man should “have but one wife” would be naturally understood as prohibiting polygamy. (2) The marriage of a second wife, after the death of the first, is nowhere spoken of in the Scriptures as wrong. The marriage of a widow to a second husband is expressely declared to be proper (1 Cor 7:39); and it is not unfair to infer from that permission that it is equally lawful and proper for man to marry the second time. But if …

Baptismal Regeneration

Do you folks believe in baptismal regeneration and are you Campbellites? Thanks ~ Cheryl Dee, Australia Mr. Rushmore, I was searching the internet and ran across your page. I saw that you taught “Baptismal Regeneration”. I was wandering how the “Church of Christ”, “Mormons”, and “Catholics” view the converts in Acts 10 that were saved by faith, ‘before’ water baptism. The bible says only those who obey God may recieve the Holy Ghost (Acts 5:32). examples: Before dealing with the questions regarding “baptismal regeneration,” let me briefly respond to the notion that others and I religiously are “Campbellites.” The appellation “Campbellites” is a derisive slur that historically has been assigned to the Disciples of Christ, the Christian Church and the churches of Christ by their antagonists. I hope that is not the spirit in which this question is posed and that your choice of words is an honest, uninformed oversight. Thomas Campbell and his son, Alexander Campbell, were Presbyterians and later identified with Baptists before opting to go behind denominationalism and attempt to practice New Testament Christianity by relying solely on the New Testament for religious instruction. However, preceding them by several years in independent efforts were James O’Kelly (formerly a Methodist), Abner Jones (formerly Baptist), Elias Smith (formerly Baptist), Barton Stone (formerly Presbyterian) and others, too. Between the latter years of the 1700s through the 1800s, in the United States and Europe, religious people left various denominations by the tens of thousands to practice predenominational, simple New Testament Christianity. …

Transferring of Spirits

Do you have any information of transferring of spirits? Can a person protect themselves from this? If so, how? ~ Regina A. Postley The contemporary religious jargon of “transferring of spirits” refers to the belief that: (1) Bible miracles still occur today, (2) those miracles may be good or bad, (3) owing to either the Holy Spirit or evil spirits respectively indwelling a person, and (4) especially indwelling by evil spirits may be involuntary by the person possessed by evil spirits. “As much as it is a fact that the Holy Spirit is given through the laying on of hands, it is also a fact that daily evil spirits are also transferred from one person to the other.” (Harold F. Weitsz, Little Falls Christian Centre, Zambia) Further, what is attributed to be transferring of an evil spirit into a person: (1) really is the effect of engaging in sin, (2) purports to be an uncontrollable outburst, (3) is a means of controlling persons and preventing them from coming under the influence of other religious leaders, (4) is deduced from even medical illnesses, and (5) diminishes personal responsibility for one’s sinful conduct. Note the following excerpts pertaining to these points. A young and innocent girl meets a boy and has an illegitimate affair with him. The change of her character is instantaneous. She becomes rebellious to her parents and develops a life of failure and misfortune. … A man is convinced to partake in corrupt financial deals and become part of …

Offering Communion Twice on Sunday

If we are to come together as one body and participate in the Lord’s Supper, why do we have another service later that same day, and allow those who didn’t attend earlier to partake of the Lord’s Supper? If we are not all eating the bread and drinking the fruit of the vine, are we not in violation? The frequency with which Christians are to partake of the Lord’s Supper is weekly (Acts 20:7). The number of worship assemblies on the Lord’s Day (or even the number of times a congregation might meet for Bible study, etc. throughout the week) is not specified in Scripture; these additional meeting times (Acts 2:46; 5:12, 42) are left to the discretion of the congregational leadership (e.g., elders, Hebrews 13:7; Acts 20:28). Offering the Lord’s Supper or Communion on the Lord’s Day at either a morning or an evening service, or for those in both services that have not yet partaken of the Lord’s Supper, is not specified in Scripture but is a matter of human discretion. The matter that is specified in the New Testament is that Christians observe the Communion once weekly (Acts 20:7). Therefore, it would neither be biblically incorrect to invite brethren who have yet to partake of the Supper to do so at either assembly (as usually is done) nor would it be biblically incorrect to limit the Communion to one of those two services (such as the evening service), as long as it was observed once on the …

Remarrying Former Husband

Bro. Rushmore: I have a question concerning marriage and divorce. I have taken the confession of a lady just divorced from her second husband without scriptural cause. She now wants to go back and marry her first husband, who, according to reports I have heard ran around with all sorts of women while they were married and hauled her home and left her with her parents. Since the time of the first divorce he has been married twice with children with at least one of the women. They both now are divorced. I offered prayer for her sins at her request, but I could not in good conscience give her any positive statement about her remarriage, but I did tell her to be sure of being right before God to remain celibate. Have I done this right in the sight of God. [name withheld upon request] Lacking omniscience, you and I cannot know all the details of the wretched disasters some people make of their married lives. Under those circumstances, we, at best, may only be able to acquaint them with precisely what the Scriptures teach respecting marriage-divorce and remarriage (e.g., Matthew 19:9). They will have to evaluate their lives carefully in view of God’s Word and accept personal responsibility for their subsequent actions, including remarriage. Under doubtful circumstances, such as you describe, neither you nor anyone else could confidently encourage the woman to contract another marriage. It is always wise to suggest the way that cannot be wrong to …

He Which Is Joined to an Harlot Is One Body

Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of an harlot? God forbid. What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh. But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit. Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body. What? know ye not that your body is the temple of the Holy Ghost which is in you, which ye have of God, and ye are not your own? For ye are bought with a price: therefore glorify God in your body, and in your spirit, which are God’s (1 Corinthians 6:15-20). The question posed pertaining to the passage above is: (1) Does the physical union between a prostitute and a man described in the context constitute a marriage? (2) Does the union between a prostitute and a man in the context represent a physical or a spiritual union? (3) Would one who becomes “one body” with a prostitute as in the context, following repentance, be a biblically permissible candidate for marriage? Overall, the passage emphasizes the incompatibility of practicing sin while purporting to be practicing Christianity. A similar sentiment is expressed in 1 Corinthians 10:21, “Ye cannot drink the cup of the Lord, and the cup of devils: ye cannot be partakers of the …

Common Law Marriages

Does God recognize common law marriages as binding? ~ Douglas W. Teague, Gaylesville, AL The USA (and most nations) requires legal officiation of marriages, by which legally sanctioned marriages are distinguished from fornication and adultery. Hence, the following definition of “common law marriage” pertains to such sexual cohabitation without that legal officiation: “the cohabitation of a couple even when it does not constitute a legal marriage” [Merriam Webster’s Collegiate Dictionary, (Springfield, Massachusetts: Merriam-Webster, Incorporated) 1993.]  However, were there nations wherein there was no government requirement for legal officiation of marriage (e.g., the Garden of Eden), “common law marriage” would be, by the following dictionary definition, both the distinction from fornication and adultery as well as honored by God. “a marriage recognized in some jurisdictions and based on the parties’ agreement to consider themselves married …” [Ibid.] The following definition of marriage likewise addresses the general distinction between marriage and fornication. Marriage is the state in which men and women can live together in sexual relationship with the approval of their social group. Adultery and fornication are sexual relationships that society does not recognize as constituting marriage. [The New Bible Dictionary, (Wheaton, Illinois: Tyndale House Publishers, Inc.) 1962.] First, there is a biblical distinction between marriage and fornication. “Marriage is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but and adulterers God will judge” (Hebrews 13:4). Second, God has decreed that mankind is subject to civil law (Romans 13:1-7) except where human and divine laws conflict, in which cases man must appeal to …

Ministerial Associations

… gospel preachers joining the local ministerial association and church members joining denominational churches just to sing and be in plays. ~ Reva McIntyre Amos 3:3 poses a rhetorical question, the answer of which is, “No!” “Can two walk together, except they be agreed?” The principle contained therein is applicable to the questions posed above. As long as the New Testament church about which one can read upon the pages of the New Testament, and which faithful Christians earnestly try to be without addition or subtraction, differs from denominationalism, we cannot participate in it. The motto of at least one ministerial association (and the practice of the them all) is: “We have agreed to disagree.” The doctrines over which the denominational members of ministerial associations have agreed to disagree include: the plan of salvation, Christian worship, the nature of God, Christian living, etc. Essentially, members of ministerial associations have concluded that their doctrinal differences do not matter, that is, how one is saved from his sins, how one worships God, the characteristics of God, whether moral living is important, etc. This is hardly the unity for which Jesus prayed (John 17:20-21). This is hardly the fellowship of which the apostle John wrote (1 John 1:3, 6-7; 2 John 9-11). Joining denominational ministerial associations and denominational churches to be in their music and theatrical programs is hardly in keeping with the directive of the apostle Paul (Ephesians 5:11); “And have no fellowship with the unfruitful works of darkness, but rather reprove them.” …

Who Created the World?

There are many references to Jesus being the creator of the world (you know them all). However, Gen. 1:1 states God created the world. Is this God the Father, or God the Son? Or is this the triune? Eph. 3:9 states that God, “who created all things by Jesus Christ.” KJV. The ASV 1901 leaves out “by Jesus Christ.” My question is, which one created the world? ~ Robert Brooks In Genesis 1:1-27 respecting the whole creation, including mankind, a plural form of God is used to designate the Creator. From other passages, we learn that there are three persons in the Godhead (Matthew 28:19). The knowledge that “God” refers to plural persons relative to creation is apparent also from the plural pronouns associated with God creating man. “And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness …” (Genesis 1:26). Notice the Hebrew word for God in Genesis Chapter One and its corresponding definition. ‘elohiym (el-o-heem’); plural of OT:433; gods in the ordinary sense; but specifically used (in the plural thus, especially with the article) of the supreme God …” (Biblesoft’s New Exhaustive Strong’s Numbers and Concordance with Expanded Greek-Hebrew Dictionary. Copyright (c) 1994, Biblesoft and International Bible Translators, Inc.) All three persons of the Godhead participated in the creation of the world. Though the ASV drops the reference to the Father creating the world through Jesus Christ in Ephesians 3:9, the ASV retains that information in Hebrews 1:1-2. The Godhead is united (John 10:30) but composed of three persons so that even what …

Youth Ministry

I’m a member of the Lord’s church and also the Organising Secretary of the Blantyre Churches of Christ Youth Ministry. I would like to learn and seek your advice on how youth ministry is undertaken. ~ Eliam We entertain religious questions for which biblical answers are sought. This question, then, causes somewhat of a quandary, since “Youth Ministry” is not something addressed in the Bible. The English word “ministry” appears 22 times in the Bible (KJV), all but twice appearing in the New Testament. The Greek word “diakonia,” translated “ministry,” occurs 34 times in the New Testament and is translated also as “ministration,” “administration,” “ministering,” “relief” and “service.” The word means “attendance as a servant.” Scripture applies “ministry” to domestic duties as preparing a meal (Luke 10:40), the special work of the apostles (Acts 1:17, 25), exercising church benevolence (Acts 6:1), benevolent financial assistance (Acts 11:29), teaching and preaching the Word of God or the Gospel (Acts 6:4; 2 Corinthians 4:1; 1 Timothy 1:12; 2 Timothy 4:5) and references to the function of God’s law (namely, Judaism). The usual application of the word “ministry” in the New Testament pertains to teaching and preaching the Word of God. Youth are not singled out among all possible candidates for the “ministry of the Word” (Acts 6:4), any more than is any other age group selected in Scripture for special treatment with the Gospel (e.g., middle-aged, senior citizens, etc.). The terminology “Youth Ministry” is of human origin rather than divine stipulation. Of course, youth …

Small Group Ministry

Our group needs to look at the scriptures related to groups that met in homes to decide what implications these may have on our church today. Is there clear Biblical reasoning for having groups meet in homes? Are the groups that met in the NT from one congregation that split up for a different worship experience or some other reason or were they each complete congregations? Are there Biblical reasons to pursue this ministry? Is there Bible reasoning that prohibits this ministry? Sincerely, Lori Sansom The word “church” is used in three different senses in the New Testament: (1) universal, encompassing congregations everywhere as well as from generation to generation, over which Jesus is the head (Matthew 16:18; Acts 2:47; Colossians 1:18); (2) a single congregation (1 Corinthians 1:2; Acts 14:23; 20:17; 1 Thessalonians 1:1); and (3) the worship assembly of any congregation (1 Corinthians 11:18, 22; 14:4-5, 12, 19, 34). For centuries, the Lord’s church did not own meetinghouses. Instead, congregations assembled in public places (Acts 5:12) and in private homes (Romans 16:5; Colossians 4:15; Philemon 2). “The churches of Asia salute you. Aquila and Priscilla salute you much in the Lord, with the church that is in their house” (1 Corinthians 16:19). Further, the worship assembly of a congregation is defined in Scripture as the ‘whole church coming together in one place at one time.’ “… when ye are gathered together …” (1 Corinthians 5:4). “… come together … For first of all, when ye come together in the church … When ye come together therefore into one place …” (1 Corinthians 11:17-20; see also 11:33-34). “… the whole church …

Fruit Juice Blend for Communion?

Someone posed a question as to whether it would be biblically permissible to use a fruit juice blend for communion instead of grape juice alone. The drink specified by Jesus as he instituted the Lord’s Supper or communion is “the fruit of the vine” (Matthew 26:29; Mark 14:25; Luke 22:18). Likewise, the bread available in the house (because of “the feast of the unleavened bread” Matthew 26:17) at the time Jesus instituted the Lord’s Supper was limited to unleavened bread. The Bible is the final, absolute standard of authority that God has provided and preserved for mankind. That authority is conveyed through explicit commands, approved examples and implications. In some instances, biblical authority specifies the details pertaining to its instruction. Regarding other topics, biblical authority does not specify details respecting its instruction and we may refine those details without opposing what God has authorized. An example of the latter is Mark 16:15, “…Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.” While it is obligatory to “Go into all the world, and preach the gospel,” what kinds of conveyances (i.e., walking, riding an animal, by wagon, by car, by bus, by boat, by airplane, by train, etc.) are not specified and mankind can opt for himself whichever means of travel he deems to be expedient. Further, how the Gospel is preached (e.g., before an audience, by radio, by television, through literature, etc.) is not specified and mankind can opt for himself whichever means of proclamation he deems to be …

Has Satan Won Over God?

Thank you for answering my question. However, you did not answer all of it. If God does not restore the earth to paradise, then has not Satan won? He kept God from fulfilling his purpose, did he not? ~ David Aldridge Sometimes querists are not satisfied with the answers provided to their inquiries through the pages of Gospel Gazette Online. However, the Gazette is neither a forum for debate nor a discussion list. Consequently, rebuttals to the biblical answers for religious questions posed, as well as subsequent counterpoints to rebuttals usually are not entertained in the pages of the Gazette. We choose, though, to treat this follow up question because, like everything we include in the Gazette, we believe there are some points that may prove useful for our readers. It is a grievous misunderstanding of spiritual matters to imagine that (1) Satan is victorious over God if God does not “restore the earth to paradise” and (2) God’s primary “purpose” respecting the human experiment is provide mankind an earthly paradise. Also, it is a misrepresentation that the earth was ever the paradise versus God placing a paradise (called the Garden of Eden) on earth. Further, the querist’s acknowledgement that his previous question was answered, for which he offered no complaint other than the above assertion, allows that the previous answer stands, which standing disarms this more recent question before it was asked. Yet, we will respond. Indeed, Satan did realize many victories in his battle against God, including tempting mankind to sin in the Garden …

Paradise on Earth?

Does the Bible teach that the earth will be a paradise again? Psalms 37:10,11 “the meek will inherit the earth.” Also, do we not pray for this, when we pray God’s will to be done on earth? Was that not God’s original purpose for man, live in paradsaic conditions? Would it not be accepting defeat by God to abandon this original purpose? Answers from the Bible only please! ~ David J Aldridge The phrases “the meek shall inherit the earth,” “those that wait on the LORD, they shall inherit the earth” and “Trust in the LORD, and do good; so shalt thou dwell in the land, and verily thou shalt be fed” appear respectively in Psalm 37:11, 9 and 3. The same Hebrew word is translated “earth” in verses 11 and 9, while it is translated “land” in verse 3. The King James Version and the New King James Version use the words “earth” and “land” as noted, but the American Standard Version, New International Version, New American Standard Version and Revised Standard Version use “land” in all three verses. Either English translation accurately represents the original language word. The latter versions cited more readily convey to us today the idea involved in the context. Jesus quotes Psalm 37 in Matthew 5:5, “Blessed are the meek: for they shall inherit the earth.” The way in which the Jews used this reference and, consequently, the way in which Jesus used it is well illustrated by the commentators Albert Barnes and Adam Clarke. Matt 5:5 …

Aged Women

… a sister … has questioned what right some of our younger women, throughout the brotherhood, have in teaching at lectureships (to ladies), ladies inspiration days and such. She argues that Titus 2:3-4 states that this should only be done by older woman. Some are getting the idea that no female can teach at any time unless she is an “aged woman.” They are also taking the definition that can be found in the Gospel Advocate Commentary of a youth being anyone from 18-40 to say that an “aged woman” allowed to teach must be at least 40, thus excluding anyone under than the age of 40 from teaching. Titus 2:2-8 is a rare occasion in Scripture where each age group of accountable souls is addressed in a single context: aged men, aged women, young women and young men. The references to the aged women and young women primarily concern the God-ordained, feminine domestic role, that is, in the home. The passage presumes that the aged women previously were the successful recipients and faithful practitioners of what they were expected to convey to younger women. The information that the aged women were to pass on to younger women pertained mostly how to be godly wives and mothers. Significantly, the elders were not entrusted with the training of young married women, a function that pertained to the godly older women in the congregation. There are seven qualities to be instilled in the younger women, two mentioned in this verse, five in the next. They …

What About an Elder’s Adult Children?

Hello bro. Rushmore; I’m having to restudy the subject of elders who have children who have left home and live elsewhere and are now unfaithful to the Lord. The elder and his family have conducted themselves properly. Thanks, Dave Dugan, Gospel Preacher, Lawton, Ok. Scripture records the qualifications necessary for men to possess before they can be considered for appointment as elders in any congregation (1 Timothy 3:1-7; Titus 1:5-9). The latter has this to say about an elder’s children. “… having faithful children not accused of riot or unruly” (Titus 1:6). Yet, the context in which those children, among the qualifications of elders, is addressed is revealed in the former passage. “One that ruleth well his own house, having his children in subjection with all gravity; (For if a man know not how to rule his own house, how shall he take care of the church of God?)” (1 Timothy 3:4-5). It is obvious from these Scriptures that in order for men to qualify for selection as elders (as far as biblical references to their children), they must have kept their families under control, having Christian children who, incidentally, acted like Christians ought to conduct themselves. Those comprising his family were obedient Christians, demonstrating their Christianity generally and with respect to the home over which their father was head. The question before us presently is whether an elder’s adult children who no longer live in his home must continue to be faithful Christians in order for an elder to remain an elder. The Scriptures say nothing …

Forgive the Impenitent?

Thanks for taking the time to read this. We were discussing in class the other day about forgiveness and the teacher said that we should forgive a person even if he hasn’t asked for it. I had a hard time with that and wonder if you could help me understand that. I read that God forgives only on condition that we repent. If that being so, does God want me to forgive without repentance? I know that as Christians we not only should but must be in the spirit of forgiveness whenever it presents itself. That I believe, but the other I can’t get resolved. Can you help? Thanks Al Lawson Your understanding of the relationship of forgiveness to repentance accurately represents what the New Testament reveals. We cannot be more forgiving than is God, and we cannot forgive others on a basis other than what God is willing to extend forgiveness. Yet, we must maintain the attitude of a willingness to forgive those who repent. The Apostle Peter thought he was being more than generous to those who might sin against him when he suggested perhaps forgiving one on seven occasions. However, Jesus indicated that there is no limit to how many times we ought to forgive those who sin against us. Essentially, then, we are supposed to always possess the spirit of forgiveness. “Then came Peter to him, and said, Lord, how oft shall my brother sin against me, and I forgive him? till seven times? Jesus saith …

The Evangelist as a Leader

Is the evangelist a leader in the local congregation? Please supply Bible support with answer. Thanks for your great work and edification powers. ~  Robert Johnson, Evangelist The Bible often employs synonyms to provide different perspectives of the same object it defines. For instance, the spiritual institution that Jesus came to establish, over which he presides and for which we will return one day, is known in Scripture by several different designations: church (Matthew 16:18; 1 Corinthians 1:2), kingdom (Matthew 16:19; Colossians 1:13), body (Ephesians 1:22-23), house (1 Timothy 3:15), temple (1 Corinthians 3:16), etc. Likewise, the God-approved rulers of independent congregations are designated in Scripture (in our English Bibles) as: elders (Titus 1:5-9), bishops (1 Timothy 3:1-7), pastors (Ephesians 4:11), shepherds (1 Peter 5:1-4), overseers (Acts 20:17, 28) and the presbytery (1 Timothy 4:14). There are also three different designations in Scripture for the man we may refer to as an evangelist: evangelist (2 Timothy 4:5), preacher (Romans 10:14) and minister (Acts 26:16; Romans 15:16; Colossians 1:23). Combined, these three English appellations plus, more importantly, the Greek words behind them, provide a fuller picture of this particular function in the church Jesus built. The word “evangelist” is transliterated from the Greek euangelistes and means literally, “a messenger of good.” Religiously, the evangelist is the messenger of the good news of the Gospel of Christ. That an evangelist is also a preacher is evident from the way the two words are used synonymously in 2 Timothy 4:2, 5 (i.e., Timothy was charged to do …

The Weaker Vessel

I Peter 3:7 … the part of the verse that is puzzling to me, is that I am a weaker vessel. How am I weaker? Is this physical, emotional or spiritual. I have been married for 24 years, have 3 grown children that are all presently faithful members (ages 23, 22, 20). I am faithful a Bible class teacher, and still I feel like I don’t measure up to a good mark. Am I really just a second class citizen because I am a woman. Does God think less of women than men, and is it society today that drums it into women that they are something that matters in this world? ~ Cynthia Davis, Sandyville, WV First Peter 3:7 reads, “Likewise, ye husbands, dwell with them according to knowledge, giving honour unto the wife, as unto the weaker vessel, and as being heirs together of the grace of life; that your prayers be not hindered.” There are several observations I would like to make about this verse as we endeavor to answer the question posed above. The first seven verses of First Peter Three address marriage partners, with the first six verses dedicated to the wife. Verse seven instructs the husband to conduct himself charitably toward his wife. In this sense, 1 Peter 3:1-7 compares to passages elsewhere that regulate the spousal relationship (Ephesians 5:21-33; Colossians 3:18-19). In each of these three passages, the husband is cited as the head of the wife, meaning as much as anything else that …

How Many Apostles?

What is the exact word and meaning for Apostles in Greek … Apostles are the eyewitnesses of the resurrected Christ, Right? (Acts 1:22) as they were twelve and apostle Paul (Acts 26:13-18) … But some people are arguing that there are 16 Apostles which includes the following. Can you  please Explain … Twelve + Paul = 13 … + Matthias = 14 … Acts 14:14 … + Barnabas = 15 … Heb 3:1 … + Jesus = 16 … ~ Joe David “How many apostles” as it is represented above is a trivia or trick question that one might pose to try to stump someone. Yet, of course, there is a valid aspect to determining what the word apostle means and in what sense it is variously applied in the New Testament. The word for “apostle” is transliterated (brought over without translation and the Greek letters exchanged for English letters) from the Greek, apostolos. Literally, it means, “one sent forth.” It is applied by Jesus to his twelve disciples (Luke 6:13). When a replacement apostle was selected to replace Judas who by transgression fell, one was to be selected from among those who had been with the Lord in his earthly ministry and had seen the resurrected Lord (Acts 1:22); Matthias was chosen (Acts 1:26). Through this point, there existed 12 apostleships of Christ and there had been 13 persons who had or were serving as apostles of Christ. The apostle Paul was singled out by Jesus to serve as an apostle …

1 Corinthians 13:8-13

I came across your article while doing some research on the internet. thanks for your insight. A couple of questions come to mind that I wonder if you can help me with. First, would it make any difference if tonges, prophecy, knowledge are understood not as miracles but as manifestations of the Spirit in the worship of the body? Secondly, can the phrase “now abides . . .” refer to right now in the present age and not after the Lord’s return? … My background teaches cessationism based largely on this verse but I certainly have read a good many NT scholars who hold differently. In His Name, Mike Garrigan, Bluff Park, AL Granted, “tongues, prophecy and knowledge” were manifestations of the Spirit that sometimes occurred in the assembly (1 Corinthians 14). Howbeit, 1 Corinthians chapters 12-14 dealt with the abuses that the Corinthian church made of the miraculous gifts afforded them. In the context, then, these were miraculous manifestations. The biblical definition of “tongues” from Acts 2 is that they were languages common to men of various nations, which the Holy Spirit enabled some such as the apostles to speak without prior acquaintance with them. In a sense, we still use tongues today, though instead of relying upon miracles, we must study the languages to learn to speak in the languages of various nations. “Faith, hope, charity” (1 Corinthians 13:13) does refer to the present and not to when the Lord returns, as when Jesus Christ returns, faith and hope will …

Created All Things?

What do we do with Colossians 1:16, “For by Him all things were created, that are in heaven and that are in earth?” Does this mean All things? Or is it explained by the rest of the verse: ” Whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him,” even musical instruments. ~ Tracy Rhodes The verse reads: “For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him” (Colossians 1:16). The words “all things” literally read in the Greek, “the all.” This refers to the creation of the universe. The word “created” in the Greek means to bring something into existence from nothing. This verse states that Jesus Christ is responsible for creation of the visible universe as well as other aspects of the created universe that are not visible to the eye. Musical instruments, automobiles, homes, etc. are not created but fashioned or made (reworked) from existing (already created) materials. Hence, Colossians 1:16 has no reference to manufactured or even handcrafted items for which mankind may be responsible. Mankind cannot do what is in this verse attributed to Jesus and this verses does not either attribute to Jesus what mankind makes from pieces of the created universe. Further, in the next verse, Jesus is attributed with causing what he created to continue to exist, without …

Fish on the Ark?

Dear Bro. Rushmore, I enjoy your website very much. I appreciate the good job you do with it. I have a Bible Question for you. One of our Bible Class teachers asked me if Noah put fish on the ark? I told her I had never really thought about it. So I read Gen. 6 & 7 and did not see any indication that he did. Would I be correct in telling her that no fish were on the ark since God does not specifically mention them being there. I look forward to your reply. Hayden Childs Genesis 7:2-3, 8, 14 identify Noah’s non-human passengers as beasts, cattle, fowl and creeping things from the earth (i.e., land). Further, including Noah’s family and the non-human passengers, they all were such creatures in which there was “the breath of life” (Genesis 7:15). Genesis 7:22 summarizes what creatures (including man) that died as being “All in whose nostrils was the breath of life, of all that was in the dry land, died.” Again, the next verse stipulates that only the creatures on the surface of the land were affected by the great deluge. “And every living substance was destroyed which was upon the face of the ground, both man, and cattle, and the creeping things, and the fowl of the heaven; and they were destroyed from the earth …” The biblical record clearly reveals that sea creatures, including fish, were not the object of the destructive flood of Noah’s day. No fish were on the ark as part …

The Lord’s Train Isaiah 6:1

What is the spiritual signifigance [sic] of “train”, if any, that Isaiah saw in his vision of the Lord. This certainly must have been more than a typical robe that we read about in chapter 6. Thanks, Wayne Cash, Howe, Ok The KJV, ASV and RSV in Isaiah 6:1 simply refer to the Lord’s “train” filling the temple, whereas the NKJV states: “the train of His robe.” The original language word for “train” means “hem”; therefore, the NKJV adds the word “robe” (italicized to show that it is not in the original) to help the English reader better understand precisely what is filling the temple in the vision, namely the “hem.”1 The NIV and NASB also read “the train of his robe,” without the italics, however, which does not show that the word “robe” was added for clarification. Elsewhere, the word “hem” appears instead of “train” in the following verses: Exodus 28:33-34; 39:24-26. “Skirts” appears instead of either “train” or “hem” in these verses: Jeremiah 13:22, 26; Lamentations 1:9; Nahum 3:5. The Holy Spirit, through the words of Jesus Christ and the pen of the apostle John, applied the prophecy of Isaiah 6:1-13 to the Christ (John 12:34-41). The Holy Spirit had inspired Isaiah to write the Isaiah 6 context and no one, therefore, is more capable of making the appropriate application (Acts 28:25-26). Fittingly, the word “hem” appears respecting the attire of Aaron, the high priest (Exodus 28:33-34; 39:24-26), to which hem bells and pomegranates were attached. (Elsewhere, though, as noted above, “skirts” appears …

Sword Piercing Mary’s Soul

You have a nice website. Can you tell me why the thoughts of many hearts will be revealed through the piercing of Mary’s soul with a sword? Luke 2:35 ~ Love from Lisa The statement to which the querist refers occurs in a passage where a prophet named Simeon met Joseph and Mary as they brought baby Jesus to the Temple for dedication (Luke 2:25-35). The statement regarding the Christ in verses 34 and 35 is interrupted with a parenthetical expression (enclosed in parentheses) addressed to the mother of Jesus. “34 And Simeon blessed them, and said unto Mary his mother, Behold, this child is set for the fall and rising again of many in Israel; and for a sign which shall be spoken against; 35 (Yea, a sword shall pierce through thy own soul also,) that the thoughts of many hearts may be revealed” (Luke 2:34-35) The words, “Yea, a sword shall pierce through thy own soul also,” forewarn the mother of Jesus of the turmoil through which she, too, will go as the events unfold regarding the Christ child through his torturous death on the cross. The commentator Albert Barnes succinctly stated the meaning of these words to Mary this way. The sufferings and death of thy Son shall deeply afflict thy soul. And if Mary had not been thus forewarned and sustained by strong faith, she could not have borne the trials which came upon her Son; but God prepared her for it, and the holy mother of the dying Saviour was sustained. …

Tell It to the Church

What does the expression “tell it to the church” in Matthew 18:17 refer to? Does it mean the corporate assembly or merely to elders, or the men if elders are not ordained? The word “church” is used in the New Testament of the divine organization for which Jesus died and over which he is head in three distinct senses. First, it may refer to the universal church, spanning not only the globe and including every congregation, but also such congregations in the past and the future (Acts 2:47; Ephesians 1:22). Second, it may refer to a particular congregation meeting in some locality (1 Corinthians 1:2) or a collective reference to such local congregations (Romans 16:16). Third, it may refer to the worship assembly of a local congregation (1 Corinthians 14:23). Therefore, the context, as often is the case respecting many biblical words, is essential to determine the way in which the word “church” is used in a certain verse of Scripture. Obviously, the reference to “church” in Matthew 18:17 is to a local congregation. However, what constitutes telling it to the church when lodging a complaint against an impenitent brother who has sinned against one, and who is impervious to overtures by even several brethren to prompt him to repent of sin? Fully organized congregations are served by biblically qualified elders, part of whose responsibilities is to exercise church discipline (the subject of Matthew 18:15-18) (Titus 1:9-11) and who are otherwise to shepherd (Acts 20:28) or rule (Hebrews 13:17) the flock or church …

The Exception Clause of Matthew 19

The Jews had the custom of betrothal, what we understand in western culture as the period of engagement. During the period of time the Jewish couple was engaged, the man was called the husband and the woman was called his wife, though no marriage covenant had yet been established. It also required to obtain a legal divorce to end a prospective marriage. This is why the exception clause is only found in Matthew’s gospel as it does not apply to Gentiles having no such custom. In Mat 1:18-25 we see Joseph being called Mary’s husband, and Mary being called Joseph’s wife, though only engaged. Also, we find Joseph contemplating divorcing Mary before even being married to her for the cause of fornication to end the prospective marriage. So the exception in Matt 19:9 means what it says. Divorce is only permitted for the cause of fornication during the betrothal, as that is not puttying asunder what God has joined together. After a marriage has been entered into, the only action that dissolves that covenant is death according to scripture (Rom 7:2, 3; 1 Cor 7:39). ~ Dayton Huebner The argument above, excerpted from a lengthier correspondence, challenges the interpretation of Matthew 19:9 that teaches that the innocent party of a contemporary marriage whose spouse commits fornication may divorce and remarry a biblically eligible candidate. The reasons given for this disavowal respecting the exception clause of Matthew 19:9 are: (1) Jewish custom required a divorce if an engagement was broken and the impending marriage …

Women Wearing Pants

Please explain Deut twenty-two five in light of women wearing ladies pants? Deuteronomy 22:5 reads, “The woman shall not wear that which pertaineth unto a man, neither shall a man put on a woman’s garment: for all that do so are abomination unto the LORD thy God.” The Book of Deuteronomy was given to the Israelites after the inauguration of Judaism, which took place at Mt. Sinai. Obviously, the precepts that are in Deuteronomy, as such, have no regulatory power respecting the God-given law that preceded Judaism (i.e., Patriarchy), unless something given by God under Patriarchy was also included in Judaism. However, does a law under Judaism necessarily apply to the religious age, in which we live (i.e., Christianity)? Again, if a law under Judaism is repeated under Christianity, then such a requirement has force now, not because it was a law under Judaism, but because it is a law of God under Christianity. Additionally, something that was a law under a previous God-given system of religion (i.e., Patriarchy, Judaism), though the specifics do not apply now since they are not included in the New Testament, may have some bearing today due to the principle involved. In this case, the New Testament does not forbid women from wearing garments usually worn by men. However, the principle that Deuteronomy 22:5 addressed is applicable today. That is, it has always been the case from creation through the present that God intends for men and women to occupy distinctive, complementary but different roles (1 Corinthians 11:3; 14:34-35; Ephesians 5:22-26; …

Separate Services for the Deaf

My name is John Thurne, I have been preaching to the deaf in Alabama and Tennessee. I am not presently preaching because I have been informed by the elders of my home congregation that I have to cease preaching to the deaf because we do not have a scriptural authority for a separate services. … My question is, 1. Is it wrong to have a separate service for the deaf? 2. The elders said it was wrong because of the Lord’s Supper, is it wrong to have the Lord’s Supper separately? 3. Did not Jesus command us to preach the gospel to every creature? Typically, interpretation, whether for the deaf or for other spoken languages, takes place in the same assembly of a congregation. In the case of the deaf, the interpretation occurs simultaneously with the spoken lesson without interruption or confusion since only one audible voice at a time is heard. Where two or more spoken languages characterize an audience, such as on some mission fields, a preacher speaks and then pauses while his words are translated to the other language. This latter situation is precisely what the inspired apostle Paul instructed the church at Corinth (1 Corinthians 14:26-33). Sometimes, in areas where a number of worshippers speak a language that is not shared by a larger number of worshippers, the two language groups will form separate congregations. Two such groups may have an agreement where they use the same facilities at different times, though they are essentially two distinct …

David, A Man After God’s Heart

How God can say of David a man after my own heart when he did all of those wicked things as recorded in the Bible? God wanted King Saul to be his favored servant, but Saul disobeyed God. More than that, Saul was not penitent. Therefore, God removed Saul from being king and sought another. “But now thy kingdom shall not continue: the LORD hath sought him a man after his own heart, and the LORD hath commanded him to be captain over his people, because thou hast not kept that which the LORD commanded thee” (1 Samuel 13:14). At least initially, God found his favored servant in David (1 Samuel 16:6-13). David did the bidding of God, and yet, like all mortals, sometimes he sinned. Some of his more notable sins, of course, include adultery and murder. Yet, with penitent heart, David turned back to God. The favorable reference to David does not gloss over David’s sins and may have applied to David more before the sins that we remember against him. It is possible, though, the favorable reference to David refers as much to him after his penitence as before he committed those ignoble sins. “And when he had removed him, he raised up unto them David to be their king; to whom also he gave testimony, and said, I have found David the son of Jesse, a man after mine own heart, which shall fulfil all my will” (Acts 13:22). The Acts 13:22 reference is part of a summary of Hebrew history, which does not …

Abstain from All Appearance of Evil

I realize that I Thessalonians 5:22 says, “Abstain from all appearance of evil.” I would like for you to elaborate on the meaning of that verse. Is it right to watch something that is wrong to do? For example, on the television there are many shows and movies that contain sinful things. Is it right to watch them? Is it right to watch a movie in which a man is murdered? Is it right to watch a movie that contains cuss words? Is it right to watch a movie in which a man fights with another man? There are even cartoons that contain what some might consider violent. Even in the various comic books, violence is found. In sports violence is found in a way. Is it right to watch football, of course not putting it or anything else before God? Football contains football players running into one another. Some are even injured. Is it right to watch that? Would that be considered violent? Is it right to watch professional wrestling? Professional wrestling contains fights, brawls, and wrestling among the wrestlers. Sometimes they are injured. Professional wrestling, of course, is fake and the wrestlers do not intend to hurt one another usually and they are trained in their ability to wrestle one another as in a play of actors, yet professional wrestling contains wrestlers getting revenge on other wrestlers, wrestlers insulting one another, among other things. In professional wrestling’s matches, wrestler wrestles against wrestler, this could be considered violent by …

Premillennialism?

Is there to be a 1000 years reign on earth as the Baptist people proclaim? Coincidentally, I was asked recently to preach a sermon regarding Premillennialism. Below, is the outline that I used. It should answer most of the questions one may have regarding this topic. Premillennialism 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18 Thesis: To examine the denominational doctrine of premillennialism and contrast it with what the Bible really teaches about the end of time. Song: I Love Thy Kingdom Lord Introduction: For centuries, extending nearly to the first century, Bible believers have entertained essentially three conflicting views of millennialism or a 1,000-year reign of Christ on earth. Postmillennialism: “This interpretation maintains that present gospel agencies will root out evils until Christ will have a spiritual reign over the earth, which will continue for 1,000 years. Then the second advent of Christ will initiate judgment and bring to an end the present order.”1 “Another position views Christ’s spiritual rule as working through preaching and teaching to bring gradual world improvement leading up to Christ’s return. This is the postmillennial view.”2 Postmillennialism is typically viewed today as unproven and thus false since, historically through the present, the Gospel of Christ has not prevailed over the world’s populace despite the passing of about 2,000 years. Amillennialism: “Advocates of this view maintain that no Millennium is to be looked for except that which, it is claimed, is in progress now in this gospel age. This theological interpretation spiritualizes or, rather, gives a mystical meaning to the vast kingdom promises in the OT. Zion …

Why No Instrumental Music in Worship?

If no where in the New Testament their is no mentioning of the use of musical instruments, and many Churches of Christ do use instruments, how do they defend that? If the restoration movement Churches, copied the first church, and they didn’t use any form of musical instruments, then at what time did the division come? Do you know, or can you defend with scripture that God would be unhappy with a simple Piano to accompany the people in their singing? King David played an instrument when he sang. Many of today’s songs use the Psalms of David for their lyrics. I can find plenty of material from Churches of Christ who stand firm on the non use of musical instruments. I would like to find someone to defend the use of Pianos, Organs, Guitars, Tape Players, CD Players, and the like. What if the person using a form accompaniment is still making Melody in his heart to God? Maybe the people of the first Church would have used instruments to help them along if they would have been available. Any help will be appreciated. ~ Bill Suffel Characteristically, the churches of Christ do not use mechanical instruments of music in their worship services. There is a very good reason for that, as we will see below. Any churches of Christ that do use instrumental music in their worship neither represent the norm among churches of Christ nor reflect the New Testament doctrine of what God prescribed for worshipful music. The Christian Church and …

Homosexuals Born into Sin?

Dear Mr. Rushmore: Can you tell me what bible verses I can share with homosexuals to let them know that they can be changed in Christ? People are born gay, just as we are all born in sin, so they should be loved and comforted and led to Christ, not despised as something inferior to heterosexuals. We are all God’s children. I appreciate any help you can offer. Michael Lane, Florence, SC It is a correct assessment of Scripture that homosexuality is sinful and therefore homosexuals need to be led by the Word of God to repent of their sins, including their homosexuality. It is also correct that homosexuals can change that behavior. By Divine inspiration, the apostle Paul listed homosexual behavior in the catalog of sins of 1 Corinthians 6:9-10. “Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate [homosexuals, NKJV], nor abusers of themselves with mankind [sodomites, NKJV], Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God” (1 Corinthians 6:9-10, KJV). Happily, homosexual behavior can be changed. Some of the Corinthian Christians to whom the apostle wrote formerly were homosexuals. “And such were some of you: but ye are washed, but ye are sanctified, but ye are justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God” (1 Corinthians 6:11). Upon repentance, they received the forgiveness of their sins, including the …

Association With a Christian Church Camp

I have a matter at hand that is bothering me very much. I will explain. The congregation that I am a member of participates in an annual family retreat at a camp that I went to last night as a representative. I find that it is controlled by the Christian church. There was dinner and a business meeting after and discussion. One of the things discussed was the matter of Christian rock music to be supplied by a certain musician at a future event. I find that this is contrary to my beliefs and I intend to voice my rejection of being a representative at our next business meeting. Am I being too picky in this matter? Any advice given will be greatly appreciated. Thank You, I remain Alfred Vidal, Jr., Chula Vista, Calif There are especially two reasons for which it would be preferable for you to not continue in association with the camp of which you wrote. First, to continue in the capacity mentioned above is an obvious violation of your conscience, which itself is described as sinful in Romans 14:23. To avoid sin in this regard in the future, you have little choice but to extricate yourself from this situation. Second, a fundamental difference between the churches of Christ and the Christian Church pertains to the type of religious music respectively employed by them. The churches of Christ conform to the prescription in Ephesians 5:19 and Colossians 3:16 about singing for worshipful music. However, the Christian Church presumes to …

Are Tournaments Gambling?

…considering that cake walks, pitching pennies, betting on sports, etc. are gambling, would a tournament which you pay to enter in order to win the “pot” be gambling? (name withheld upon request) “Gamble” is defined as ‘playing a game of chance for money or property’ or ‘to bet on an uncertain outcome.’ A tournament to which one pays an entry fee is not usually considered the same as playing a game of chance or betting, even if prizes awarded to winners are monetary. First, tournaments typically involve activity in which skill instead of chance is the primary determining factor of the outcome (e.g., a golf tournament). Second, even a monetary prize in a sporting event, for instance, is comprised of sums exceeding the entry fees, which may be derived largely from spectator admission fees and advertising (e.g., auto racing). Third, entry fees to a tournament fund more than prizes, such as expenses associated with hosting the event (e.g., county fair). I would be slow to condemn someone’s participation in a tournament, though entry fees may be associated with it. However, if I personally had a troubled conscience regarding tournaments, I would refrain from such myself to avoid violating my conscience (Romans 14:23).

Fellowship With Whom?

In the context of 1 John chapter one in verse 7 where it says “we have fellowship one with another,” is it talking about God or Godhead, other Christians or both; who is the fellowship with? In Christ and Christian Love, Randy H. Sturgess The verse under consideration reads: “But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship one with another, and the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin” (1 John 1:7). The answer to your question lies in verse 3, which reads: “That which we have seen and heard declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship with us: and truly our fellowship is with the Father, and with his Son Jesus Christ.” In short, biblical fellowship is a triangular relationship between the Godhead, a faithful Christian and every other faithful Christian (who also has fellowship with the Godhead). Every faithful child of God enjoys fellowship with the Godhead and with every other faithful child of God. Biblical fellowship extends across every geographical and topographical feature of our planet (where Christians may be), across the barriers of time past, present and future among faithful Christians, and across the threshold on either side of which is this physical world and timeless eternity in the spiritual realm.

Beneficiaries of the New Covenant

In Hebrews 10, is the “them” in verse 16 the same “them” of verse 14, and the same “their” of verse 17? Thank you, In Christ, Rea Buttermore The verses involved in the inquiry are: “or by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified. Whereof the Holy Ghost also is a witness to us: for after that he had said before, This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, saith the Lord, I will put my laws into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them; And their sins and iniquities will I remember no more” (Hebrews 10:14-17). The short answer to your inquiry is yes! The Book of Hebrews is a running contrast between Judaism and Christianity. Its purpose was to re-establish Jewish Christians whose faith in the Gospel system was wavering. Many Jewish Christians in the first century were tempted to dispense with Christianity and return to a strict allegiance to Judaism. The mention of a “covenant” in this passage contrasts the New Covenant, which was the subject of Old Testament prophecy, but had been implemented in the first century with the Old Covenant or Testament. The “them” of verse 14 who were “sanctified” or saved persons when Hebrews was written were the objects of salvation contained in the Old Testament prophecy cited (Jeremiah 31:33-34) and designated in the prophecy as “them” in verse 16 and as “their” in verse 17. The word “perfected” in verse 14 means “completed” or “fulfilled”; see Strong’s Greek …

Jephthah’s Daughter

I read Judges 11:29-33 and wonder what is going on. Jephthah makes a vow to God to “offer” whatever comes through the door as a burnt offering. V. 31. It couldn’t be an animal because they usually didn’t enter people’s houses through the doors so I don’t think he meant to sacrifice a person coming through the door. I don’t think he meant a human sacrifice because his daughter had no relations with man after he “did to her according to the vow.” V. 39. What are your thoughts? David Peery. Jephthah’s vow has been a source of controversy throughout modern history. Essentially, two contrasting views argue for either Jephthah literally offering his daughter as a blood-spilt burnt altar offering, or that she was dedicated to lifelong, celibate service to God. God raised Jephthah to be a Judge in Israel to liberate the Israelites from the oppression of the Ammonites (Judges 11:29). Further, God is directly involved as the one with whom the vow was made and at least indirectly through providence in the turn of events that led to the application of the vow to Jephthah’s daughter. Therefore, whatever conclusion to which one arrives also affects one’s view of God, too. According to Keil and Delitzsch, the verbal construction of the vow anticipated that to whomever the vow would eventually be applied was a human and not an animal. Also, Jephthah apparently determined to allow chance or providence to select the immediate application upon his return home. Jephthah’s daughter …

What Is Public Sin?

What is the difference between private and public sins? I realize that most say that sins of a private nature can be forgiven by praying to God for forgiveness, while sins of a public nature need to be repented of. I realize that God doesn’t hear the prayers of Christians who have committed public sins. … If a man told a lie in public, yet no one knew it was a lie, but he and God, would that be considered a public sin? If a man didn’t give as he should in the offering would that be considered a public sin? Are public sins, sins that are done in public in which people identify as a sin or do public sins also include sins done in public, in which only God and the person doing them, know to be a sin? … Also, would breaking the law by going above the speed limit be considered a sin? Would that be public or private? I realize that many brethren probably go above the speed limit, but would that be considered a sin? I realize that we are to obey the laws of the land, but yet I ask would it be a sin to break the law of speeding? The context of Matthew 18:15-17 makes the distinction between what we might call private sins and public sins, primarily by defining private sins. “Moreover if thy brother shall trespass against thee, go and tell him his fault between thee and him alone: …

What Is a Creed?

What is the definition of a creed (in the unscriptural sense)? I have seen a congregation adopt written rules of what to wear (specific articles of clothing) or who can use the building (what type of weddings, what type people can have showers) in written policy format, would that be a creed? (name withheld upon request) Religiously, a creed is “a fixed formula summarizing the essential articles of the Christian religion” (Early Christian Creeds, 1972, p. 1). Such a creed is also defined as “a brief authoritative formula of religious belief” [Merriam Webster’s Collegiate Dictionary, (Springfield, Massachusetts: Merriam-Webster, Incorporated) 1993] or “an authoritative formulated statement of the chief articles of Christian belief” [Webster’s Talking Dictionary, (Random House, Inc.) 1995]. Jesus described creeds in Matthew 15:9, “But in vain they do worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men.” The short answer, then, to your question is, “No.” The things you mention do not pertain to either worship or one’s manmade concept of the essential articles of the Christian religion. On the other hand, there are a number of decisions that every congregation makes in the area of expediency which do not pertain to creeds, which often are written down. For instance, a time and place for worship and Bible classes must be decided, announced and is usually written (e.g., church signs, yellow pages, advertising, bulletins, etc.). Likewise, local decisions by the elders may be announced and even written respecting the use of the building other than for worship. At …

Christ Preached to Spirits in Prison?

Brother Rushmore, We were studying this chapter in class last Wednesday night. Came to these verses and we really weren’t sure what they meant especially the last part of verse 19, “preached to the spirits in prison.” Would appreciate your help in understanding verse 19. Thank-you, Billy Roughton The biblical reference in the inquiry is: “For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit: By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison; Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water” (1 Peter 3:18-20, King James Version). Most translations read about the same as the quotation above. Some read as below with the inclusion of the added word “now” in italics by the translators, which indicates their understanding that the spirits addressed were once the ungodly people who died in the universal flood of Noah’s day, but these souls are now in “prison.” “in which also He went and made proclamation to the spirits now in prison, who once were disobedient, when the patience of God kept waiting in the days of Noah, during the construction of the ark, in which a few, that is, eight persons, were brought safely through the water” (1 Peter 3:19-20, New American Standard). Many …

Great Apostasy to Precede Second Coming

I was reading 2 Thessalonians and I am confused on chapter 2 especially verse 8-9 “And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming: Even him, whose coming is after the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders,” Is this two separate beings? “that wicked” is not Satan because he is “after the working of Satan” so who is he? and what does it mean “destroy with the brightness of His coming”? Thank you, David Peery First century Christians supposed that Jesus Christ would execute his second coming within their lifetime. Various New Testament references attempt to disarm that first century erroneous conviction, such as 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18 where the apostle Paul assures the living saints that deceased saints are not disadvantaged because they died before the Second Coming. In the second epistle to the Thessalonians, the apostle again tries to alleviate the misconception that Jesus Christ must necessarily come immediately. It was then as even now, as far as mortals know, the case that Jesus Christ could return soon while we yet live or at any time in the future. We just don’t know when Jesus Christ is coming again and therefore must be prepared always (Matthew 24:36-44). Second Thessalonians 2:1-2 identify the chapter’s topic to concern the misgivings the Thessalonians had regarding the imminent return of Christ, and even that some would falsely persuade them of …

Baptism of the Holy Spirit

Would you please help me with Matt.3:11. John quotes to the people there present that Jesus will baptize “you” with the Holy Spirit. To whom was he referring? I know the apostles were the ones baptized on Pentecost, but I need help to explain this passage. Bob Douglas, California Joel 2:28-3:2 prophesied that miraculous power would visit Jews and Gentiles at some magnificent event in the then future. The city of Jerusalem would figure prominently in the unfolding of these events. Young and old, male and female would be the recipients of miraculous power. It is clear from Acts 2:16-21 where the apostle Peter referred to Joel’s prophecy, quoted it and applied it to the baptism of the Holy Spirit on the apostles (Acts 2:1-4) that Joel’s prophecy included the baptism of the Holy Spirit upon the apostles. Referring to Joel 2:28-3:2, one easily sees that others in addition to the apostles were to receive miraculous power, too (women, Gentiles, gifts of the Holy Spirit as opposed to the baptism of the Holy Spirit, Acts 8:14-18; Hebrews 2:4). However, the prophecy of Joel itself does not say in so many words the baptism of the Holy Spirit was intended for the apostles alone and that gifts of the Holy Spirit would be available through the imposition of apostolic hands on other Christians. One must turn to other passages such as Acts 2:16-21; 2:38; 8:14-18; Hebrews 2:4 to see that distinction. John the Baptizer’s reference to the baptism of the Holy …

Who Is the Prophet Like Unto Moses?

Respected sir: This email is regarding the information you have displayed in the following link https://www.gospelgazette.com/gazette/2000/jul/page7.shtml regarding prophet Jesus (peace be upon him) like Prophet Moses (peace be upon him). What you have mentioned is wrong the prophet like unto Moses is prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him). Please consider the following with an aspect in search of the truth and leave all rational differences behind. The following is the reasoning and matter: – this is an article by Mr. Ahmad Deedat please read it and I am sure it will spread some knowledge: WHAT THE BIBLE SAYS ABOUT MUHAMMED (PEACE BE UPON HIM) THE PROPHET OF ISLAM, A lecture by Ahmed Deedat ~ email from mohammed akbar ali khan The petitioner above and the article he submitted propose that Deuteronomy Eighteen’s prophecy about God raising up a prophet like unto Moses refers not to Jesus Christ but to Muhammad. How can one tell whether the prophecy refers to Muhammad or Jesus Christ? The Scripture reads: “The LORD thy God will raise up unto thee a Prophet from the midst of thee, of thy brethren, like unto me; unto him ye shall hearken…I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him” (Deuteronomy 18:15, 18). First, the New Testament, possessing the same divine inspiration with which the Old Testament was penned, tells precisely who fulfilled this prophecy. There …

How Many Israelites Died in the Wilderness?

A 10 year old, “… would like to know how many of the Israelites died while wandering in the wilderness?” The exact number of Israelites who died during the wilderness wandering cannot be known. That number is not revealed in the Bible. Further, since neither the exact number of persons who left Egypt in the Exodus nor the exact number of persons who proposed to enter Canaan after the 40 years were complete is known, it is not possible to know precisely how many Israelites died in that period. However, we may make some educated guesses about how many Israelites left Egypt, arrived to enter Canaan 40 years later and perhaps also guess about how many died during the wilderness wandering. From Exodus 12:37 and Numbers 1:45-47, one learns that about 600,000 (603,550) men from 20 years old upward who could wage war were numbered in the Exodus. The tribe of Levi, males under 20 years old and all females were excluded from that census. The Methodist commentator, Adam Clarke, made the following suppositions to calculate the total population of Israelites at the time of the Exodus. He estimated that two-thirds the number of fighting men or 400,000 wives could be deduced and added to the 600,000. Further, supposing that each family had an average of six children, Clarke added another 2,000,000 persons. Next, he added 45,000 Levite men (not included in the 600,000), 33,000 Levite wives, 165,000 Levite children plus a 20,000 mixed multitude. Clarke estimated the total population of …