Remarriage
of Guilty Party
after the Death of One's SpouseHello.
I have a question. Can the one, who is divorced for the
purpose of “fornication,” remarry when their now
“old” spouse dies (Romans
7:1-3)? Does the death of a spouse give eligibility to remarriage, no
matter
what the circumstance (even in the case of unscriptural divorce)? Thank You. Anthony Grigsby- Dayton,
Ohio USA
Strictly speaking, the New Testament records our Lord’s
prohibition of the spouse guilty of adultery or fornication, who then
is
divorced by his or her mate, from marrying again (Matthew 5:32; 19:9).
The
prospect of the innocent (sinned-against) spouse dying and whether the
guilty
party can then remarry is not entertained in those passages.
Romans 7:1-3
uses the marriage covenant to illustrate regarding the following verses
that
mankind is no longer bound to the Old Law after it is dead and removed,
but
that mankind can and must recognize the binding nature of the New
Testament.
Further, this illustration about marriage emphasizes the impropriety of
either
trying to have two husbands or abide by two law systems at the same
time.
Though Romans, in that illustration, mentions that death dissolves
marriage,
enabling the survivor to remarry, divorce is not a part of the equation
in the
passage.
In other words, neither any of the passages under
consideration, nor other passages outside our current consideration,
speak to
the specific circumstance of a divorce of an adulterer and his
subsequent remarriage, irrespective of whether one’s spouse
is alive or dead.
Therefore, a direct answer as to whether a spouse divorced for adultery
or
fornication can remarry with God’s approval after the former
spouse dies does
not appear in Scripture.
What persons, brethren or not, who have little or no
respect for the authority of the Bible conclude is of no consequence to
sincere
students of the Bible. However, brethren who have a healthy respect for
the
authority of Scriptures come to conflicting conclusions as to whether
the
guilty party to a divorce because of adultery or fornication may
remarry with
God’s approval after the death of the former spouse. Some
conclude that the
guilty spouse put away is under a prohibition from God to not remarry
irrespective of the innocent party to a divorce because of adultery; if
that is
so, the death of one’s former spouse would be immaterial. It
may be argued that
the guilty party to a divorce for the cause of adultery or fornication
is no
longer under the law of the husband (Romans 7:3), and that the death of
that
spouse, then, doesn’t release the adulterer or fornicator
from the prohibition
of remarriage. Other brethren, basing their conclusion solely on the
relationship of marriage, though fractured by divorce because of
adultery, in
spite of the fact that the innocent spouse may have remarried, suppose
that
death erases the prohibition to remarry. (Just what, then, would be the
relationship of persons in that failed marriage: an innocent spouse, a
new
innocent spouse and a guilty spouse that cannot remarry due to some
connection
to the former spouse?)
There is always a way that cannot be wrong (i.e., a way
that is safe beyond question). Since marriage, divorce and remarriage
is a
doctrinal question that can affect eternities, one needs to be sure
that the
choices made respecting this are correct. The consequences for a wrong
decision
here cannot be undone in the next life.
Did the Wisemen Know?I
am looking for a place where I can ask questions and someone
of authority would answer. Do you know of such an email group? An
example of
such a question would be the wise men saw an Eastern Star and they knew
the
Lord had been born. How did they know? How many years did that star
shine? Carl
Martin, Humble, Texas
The only religious authority is the Bible itself. No
person can speak authoritatively about religion beyond what the
inspired Word
of God reveals (2 Timothy 3:16-17; 2
Peter 1:20-21).
What the Bible reveals, we can know; what the Bible does not reveal, we
cannot
know (Deuteronomy 29:29). Surely, God has revealed to mankind
everything
religiously that He wants mankind to have; surely, God has preserved
everything
religiously that He wants mankind to have.
That being said, the Bible does not specifically record
how that the wisemen knew that a special starry phenomenon that they
observed
indicated the birth of the Lord. In addition, the Bible does not
specify for
how long this special star shone.
The best one can do regarding these questions is to
attempt to deduce some relative or possible answers. Any plausible
answers,
though not definitive, preclude dismissal of the event.
Though there had been silence from God for about 400
years since the close of the Old Testament, the New Testament opens
with
several divine revelations to various individuals: Zacharias (Luke
1:5-20);
Mary, mother of Jesus (Luke 1:26-37), Joseph (Matthew 1:20-23),
shepherds (Luke
2:8-14), the prophet Simeon (Luke 2:25-26) and the prophetess Anna
(Luke
2:36-38). It is reasonable to conclude that divine revelation may have
informed
the wisemen about the significance of the unusual star.
Regarding how long the star shone, if the wisemen
traveled from Gentile lands far to the east as is supposed because of
the
location of population centers east of Palestine and the descriptions
of the
wisemen, the star had to shine a sufficient long time to lead them from
where
their journey began to where Jesus was (i.e., in a house, Matthew 2:11). Weeks to
months would be involved
since the time about which they inquired was the birth of Jesus, but by
the
time of their arrival, the 40 days of Mary’s purification
were fulfilled
(Leviticus 12:2-6) and the family was no longer lodged in the
temporary,
makeshift abode of a stable, but they were in a house. The age span of
children
(up to two-years-old, Matthew
2:16)
that King Herod ordered slaughtered in his attempt to kill Jesus also
suggests
that several months were involved between the time the wisemen began
following
the star and their arrival in Jesus’ presence (i.e., if they
began following
the star before or soon after the birth of Jesus).
Are Training Schools Biblical?
A Gospel preacher in India asks if Bible training
schools are biblical. Bible schools and preacher training schools are
employed
in the United States and overseas effectively to teach people about
Christianity as well as to prepare men and women Christians for greater
Christian service.
The words of the apostle Paul in 2 Timothy 2:2
authorize teaching especially Christians in such a way as to increase
their
knowledge and effectiveness in Christian service. “And the
things that thou
hast heard of me among many witnesses, the same commit thou to faithful
men
[Greek, anthropos, meaning “human
being”], who shall be able to teach
others also.” This verse implies that a means must be
employed to accomplish
the directive to teach, but the details regarding how to teach are not
included. The means of implementing the teaching, then, are left to the
discretion of humans. Therefore, by divine implication and human
inference,
Bible training schools and preacher training schools are authorized
because
they are means by which the directive of 2 Timothy 2:2 are satisfied.
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